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Free Practice Questions for Eswatini Bar Examination
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Key Facts: Eswatini Bar Examination Exam
Written + oral
Published statutory examination modes
Legal Notice 44 of 1978, pages S4-S5; current sitting details require confirmation
32 MCQs
Independent practice inventory
OpenExamPrep reviewed practice bank
Not confirmed
Official assessment language options
Primary-source research checked 2026-10-18
Eswatini's statutory attorney-admission framework includes articles and a practical examination with written drafting and oral assessment. These 32 independent English-language MCQs review selected legal procedures and client-money duties. Current fees, assessment languages and 2026 sitting arrangements require confirmation.
Sample Eswatini Bar Examination Practice Questions
Try these sample questions to review concepts for the Eswatini Bar Examination exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 32+ question experience with AI tutoring.
1An Eswatini client claims damages for injuries suffered in a collision. Liability and the amount of damages must be proved. Which originating process should the attorney prepare?
A.A combined summons with particulars of the material facts supporting the damages claim
B.A simple summons describing the damages as an already liquidated debt
C.A provisional sentence summons relying only on the client's estimate of the loss
D.A notice seeking default judgment before any summons has been served
Explanation: The High Court Rules require a statement of material facts to accompany the summons where the claim is not for a debt or liquidated demand. An injury claim requiring assessment of damages therefore calls for a combined summons. The particulars should explain the basis of liability and the damages claimed.
2A private defendant lives 20 kilometres from the High Court. There is no special direction concerning time. Under the ordinary rule, what minimum period after service must be allowed for delivering notice of intention to defend?
A.Five days
B.Seven days
C.Ten days
D.Fourteen days
Explanation: High Court Rule 19 allows at least ten days after service, subject to a court direction. It allows at least fourteen days where the defendant resides more than eighty kilometres from the court, and contains a separate provision for government defendants. The question concerns a nearby private defendant.
3Before commencing a High Court claim, an attorney knows that the parties genuinely dispute the decisive oral agreement and that witness credibility will need testing. Which procedure ordinarily best accommodates that dispute?
A.Motion proceedings, treating the client's affidavit as conclusive proof
B.Action proceedings, allowing the factual dispute to be resolved at trial
C.Provisional sentence, treating the disputed oral agreement as a liquid document
D.An application for default judgment despite the known opposition
Explanation: A foreseeable, substantial dispute of material fact ordinarily makes action proceedings the appropriate choice. Trial permits oral evidence and cross-examination on credibility. The court's power to refer disputed issues in motion proceedings to oral evidence does not make affidavits a reliable substitute for choosing the proper procedure at the outset.
4An applicant seeks urgent High Court relief on shortened notice. What must the supporting affidavit explain to justify departure from the ordinary timetable?
A.The strength and value of the claim, without explaining the consequences of waiting
B.The respondent's opposition to settlement, without explaining any time-sensitive harm
C.That notice was served, without addressing whether an ordinary hearing would provide substantial redress
D.The circumstances creating urgency and why substantial redress cannot be obtained at a hearing in due course
Explanation: The urgency provision requires explicit facts explaining both urgency and the inability to obtain substantial redress in the ordinary course. Merely calling the matter urgent does not establish those requirements. The affidavit should connect the threatened harm to the need for an accelerated hearing.
5A client seeks an interim interdict pending trial. Which assessment best addresses the requirements for that provisional protection?
A.A finally established clear right and proof of damages, without considering alternative remedies
B.The balance of convenience alone, even if no protectable right is shown
C.A prima facie right, apprehended irreparable harm, a favourable balance of convenience, and no satisfactory alternative remedy
D.A prima facie right alone, leaving harm and alternative remedies entirely for trial
Explanation: Interim interdicts require consideration of the right asserted, irreparable harm, the balance of convenience, and the adequacy of another remedy. A prima facie right may suffice for interim relief even though it remains open to some doubt. This differs from requiring a clear right for a final interdict.
6Which document most clearly has the essential characteristics of a liquid document for provisional sentence?
A.A signed, unconditional acknowledgment that a fixed sum is owed to the creditor
B.An unsigned invoice whose receipt and amount the alleged debtor disputes
C.A signed promise to pay damages in an amount still to be assessed
D.A signed proposal to pay if a future condition is fulfilled, with no proof of fulfilment
Explanation: A liquid document embodies an acknowledgment of indebtedness in a fixed or ascertainable sum over the debtor's signature or that of an authorised agent. The unconditional acknowledgment supplies the essential documentary basis for provisional sentence. Signature alone does not make a conditional or unassessed obligation liquid.
7Assuming the procedural requirements are satisfied, which High Court claim falls within a category eligible for summary judgment?
A.Unassessed damages for pain and suffering
B.Unassessed damages for injury to reputation
C.An order setting aside a statute on constitutional grounds
D.Payment of a fixed contractual debt
Explanation: The summary-judgment rule includes claims for a liquidated amount in money. A fixed contractual debt therefore falls within an eligible category. Eligibility does not establish entitlement to judgment if the defendant shows a matter requiring trial.
8A defendant objects that a High Court summary-judgment affidavit includes material evidence and identified information supplied by another person. Which statement correctly describes the rule's evidentiary requirements?
A.Every statement must be based on the deponent's personal observation, without exception
B.The affidavit must verify the claim's facts and belief that there is no defence; it may include material evidence and, unless otherwise directed, information or belief with sources and grounds
C.The affidavit must contain only a statement that the appearance was entered for delay and must exclude evidence
D.A notice of application alone is sufficient whenever the claim is liquidated
Explanation: The amended Eswatini rule permits the affidavit to set out evidence material to the claim. Unless the court directs otherwise, statements of information or belief are permitted if their sources and grounds are given. A categorical prohibition on such evidence misstates the local rule.
9The defence to a High Court summary-judgment application identifies a material dispute about whether the person who signed the agreement had authority. The facts, if proved at trial, would defeat the claim. What is the proper approach?
A.Consider whether this raises an issue requiring trial, without demanding that the defence already prove its trial case
B.Grant judgment unless the defendant proves the defence beyond reasonable doubt
C.Decide the conflicting versions by conducting a full trial within the application
D.Disregard the dispute because authority can never affect a contractual debt
Explanation: The defendant must satisfy the court that there is an issue or question in dispute that ought to be tried, or another reason for a trial. Summary judgment must not become a mini-trial requiring the defendant to prove the eventual defence. A material dispute concerning authority can warrant referral to trial.
10After pleadings close, a party receives an ordinary High Court notice requiring discovery on oath. No different period is fixed by a judge. What period does the discovery rule provide?
A.Seven days
B.Fourteen days
C.Twenty-one days
D.Thirty days
Explanation: The High Court discovery rule provides twenty-one days for discovery on oath after the notice. A judge's order may prescribe a different period. The duty concerns relevant documents and recordings that are or have been in the party's possession or control.
About the Eswatini Bar Examination Practice Questions
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