What does the ENC Entry-to-Practice assessment involve?

ENC's reform team describes an MCQ examination and demonstration of essential clinical skills in the Standard Clinical Competencies Record Book (SCCRB), signed by clinical preceptors with a final lecturer assessment. The council-partnered 2025 evaluation reports 100 paper-based general nursing items and a 60% cut-off. It describes additional questions for midwifery and community mental health practice. Confirm current eligibility and sitting instructions with ENC.

Does this bank replace clinical assessment or specialist study?

No. This is an independent English-language MCQ study adaptation for general nursing knowledge and judgment. It is not an official translation, official-format simulation, or substitute for supervised clinical procedures, the signed SCCRB, or additional specialist assessment. Obtain current instructions from ENC for every required assessment component.

What are the official language, duration, and fee?

The accessible primary sources did not confirm permitted assessment languages, duration, or a current fee. English in an educational publication does not establish an official English sitting. Obtain current candidate instructions directly from ENC.

Are the practice topic percentages official exam weights?

No. The seven domain names come from the ENC reform team's report, but official percentage weights were not verified. The displayed percentages describe only this independent practice bank.

Is this an official ENC resource?

No. OpenExamPrep provides independent practice for the named examination and related nursing topics. ENC has not sponsored, approved, or endorsed this resource.

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Key Facts: ENC Entry-to-Practice Exam Exam

100 general nursing items

Official written count reported in the 2025 evaluation; confirm current sitting

Murray and Nkwanyana, 2025 evaluation slide deck

60% reported cut-off

2025 evaluation finding; the evaluation also describes plans to review the passing standard

Murray and Nkwanyana, 2025 evaluation slide deck

7 competency domains

Knowledge and judgment areas described by the ENC reform team

Msibi, Nkwanyana and Kuebel, 2020

Clinical skills required

Signed SCCRB records demonstrated essential procedures

ENC reform-team report and council-partnered evaluation

Study general nursing through 50 independent English-language MCQs covering all seven ENC competency domains. The council-partnered 2025 evaluation describes 100 official general nursing items, a 60% cut-off, and a signed clinical competency record. Official topic weights, delivery languages, duration, fee, and 2026 sitting arrangements require confirmation; this bank does not cover every specialist requirement.

Sample ENC Entry-to-Practice Exam Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the ENC Entry-to-Practice Exam exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 50+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Which activity belongs primarily to the assessment phase of the nursing process?

A.Identifying a nursing diagnosis from clustered findings

B.Setting a measurable patient outcome

C.Choosing interventions for an identified problem

D.Collecting the patient's subjective and objective health data

Explanation: Assessment establishes the information needed to understand the patient's condition, concerns, and circumstances. Nursing diagnosis interprets those findings; setting outcomes and selecting interventions belong to planning.

2A patient taking a loop diuretic develops weakness and palpitations. Which ECG finding most strongly supports suspected hypokalemia, pending blood-test confirmation?

A.Tall, narrow, peaked T waves

B.A short PR interval with a delta wave

C.A broad QRS complex merging into a sine-wave pattern

D.Flattened T waves with prominent U waves

Explanation: Hypokalemia can produce T-wave flattening, ST depression, and prominent U waves. The medication history increases suspicion, but serum electrolyte testing is needed because ECG appearances alone do not establish the potassium concentration.

3Under WHO childhood-diarrhea assessment guidance, which combination meets the clinical classification of severe dehydration?

A.Restlessness, eager drinking, and slowly returning skin pinch

B.Thirst with normal alertness and normal skin recoil

C.One finding of sunken eyes with normal drinking and normal skin recoil

D.Lethargy, sunken eyes, and a skin pinch returning very slowly

Explanation: Severe dehydration requires at least two relevant signs: lethargy or unconsciousness, sunken eyes, poor or absent drinking, and very slow skin-pinch recoil. The listed combination contains three such signs and requires urgent treatment assessment.

4A prescribed 1,000 mL infusion must run over 8 hours through tubing calibrated at 20 drops/mL. What rate, rounded to the nearest whole drop, should be set?

A.21 drops/min

B.63 drops/min

C.42 drops/min

D.125 drops/min

Explanation: Multiply the volume by the tubing's drop factor and divide by the infusion time in minutes. The calculation is (1,000 × 20) ÷ (8 × 60) = 41.67, which rounds to 42 drops/min; the infusion still requires regular clinical monitoring.

5Which insulin-injection practice helps reduce lipohypertrophy and variability in absorption?

A.Using the same small painless spot for each injection

B.Injecting into an existing fatty lump to reduce discomfort

C.Systematically rotating injection points within the chosen anatomical area

D.Changing the insulin dose whenever an injection site feels firm

Explanation: Repeated injections into one small area can produce fatty lumps that alter insulin absorption. Rotate injection points and avoid abnormal or lumpy tissue; dose changes require an appropriate clinical plan.

6A sacral wound attributed to pressure has partial-thickness skin loss, a moist pink exposed dermis, and no slough or visible fat. Which pressure-injury classification best fits?

A.Stage 1

B.Unstageable

C.Stage 3

D.Stage 2

Explanation: Stage 2 describes partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis and a viable pink or red wound bed. Establish that pressure is the cause, because moisture-associated skin damage and skin tears should not be assigned pressure-injury stages.

7Which intervention is recommended by WHO to prevent postpartum hemorrhage during the third stage of labor?

A.Routine manual exploration of the uterus after every birth

B.Uterine balloon tamponade before any bleeding occurs

C.Sustained uterine massage as a substitute for a uterotonic

D.A quality-assured prophylactic uterotonic, such as oxytocin

Explanation: A prophylactic uterotonic is a central measure for preventing postpartum hemorrhage. WHO recommends oxytocin where available and suitable; sustained uterine massage is not recommended as routine prevention after prophylactic oxytocin, although massage has a role in treating hemorrhage.

8At 32 weeks of pregnancy, which new finding most strongly warrants prompt assessment for pre-eclampsia?

A.Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg with mild dependent ankle swelling

B.Trace glucosuria without hypertension or symptoms

C.Fetal heart rate 140 beats/min with normal maternal observations

D.Repeated blood pressure 145/95 mmHg with 2+ proteinuria

Explanation: New hypertension after 20 weeks together with proteinuria or other maternal organ or uteroplacental dysfunction raises concern for pre-eclampsia. The repeated elevated pressure and proteinuria require further assessment; a dipstick result should be interpreted with the clinical picture and quantified where appropriate.

9At one minute, a newborn has a heart rate of 110 beats/min, a strong cry, spontaneous active limb movements, a sneeze in response to stimulation, and a pink trunk with blue hands and feet. What is the Apgar score?

A.10

B.7

C.9

D.8

Explanation: Heart rate, respiratory effort, active movement, and reflex response each score 2; pink trunk with blue extremities scores 1. The total is 9. Apgar summarizes the newborn's condition and response to care; resuscitation decisions must not wait for the score.

10Which mid-upper arm circumference meets WHO's severe acute malnutrition criterion in a child aged 6–59 months?

A.132 mm

B.126 mm

C.112 mm

D.120 mm

Explanation: A MUAC below 115 mm in this age group meets the severe acute malnutrition criterion and warrants full assessment and management. Bilateral nutritional pitting edema or a sufficiently low weight-for-height can also identify severe acute malnutrition, even when MUAC is higher.

About the ENC Entry-to-Practice Exam Practice Questions

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