Free Practice Questions for Rwanda Medical and Dental Council Licensure Examination

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Sample Rwanda Medical and Dental Council Licensure Examination Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the Rwanda Medical and Dental Council Licensure Examination exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 58-year-old man has had crushing central chest pain for 90 minutes. The ECG shows 3 mm ST elevation in II, III and aVF with reciprocal depression in I and aVL. Aspirin and a P2Y12 inhibitor have been given. What is the priority?

A.Admit for heparin and arrange an exercise stress test once pain settles

B.Primary PCI within 120 minutes, or fibrinolysis if PCI is not possible

C.Give intravenous furosemide and observe on the ward for 6 hours

D.Repeat the troponin in 3 hours before deciding on treatment

Explanation: This is an inferior STEMI. The goal is rapid reperfusion: primary PCI if it can be delivered within 120 minutes of first medical contact, otherwise fibrinolysis within 30 minutes of arrival when there are no contraindications. Waiting for troponin delays treatment, because the ECG already establishes the diagnosis.

2A 22-year-old with type 1 diabetes has vomiting, Kussmaul breathing and dehydration. Glucose is 28 mmol/L, urine ketones 4+, pH 7.15 and bicarbonate 10 mmol/L. What is the first step before starting an intravenous insulin infusion?

A.An insulin bolus of 1 unit/kg followed by subcutaneous glargine

B.IV 0.9% saline and a serum potassium check

C.A sodium bicarbonate infusion to normalise the pH quickly

D.Intravenous furosemide and a broad-spectrum antibiotic

Explanation: DKA management starts with IV isotonic fluid to restore circulating volume. Potassium is checked before insulin is started: if it is below 3.3 mmol/L, potassium is replaced first because insulin will drive it into cells and can cause fatal arrhythmias.

3An adult with Plasmodium falciparum parasitaemia of 2% is walking and talking. Which additional finding would classify the illness as severe malaria under WHO criteria?

A.Temperature of 39.5 degrees C

B.A single episode of vomiting

C.Haemoglobin of 6 g/dL

D.Headache and muscle aches

Explanation: WHO severe malaria criteria include impaired consciousness, prostration, multiple convulsions, acidosis, hypoglycaemia, severe anaemia (in adults haemoglobin below 7 g/dL with parasitaemia above 10,000/microlitre), renal impairment, jaundice with high parasitaemia, pulmonary oedema, significant bleeding, shock and hyperparasitaemia. Severe malaria needs parenteral artesunate.

4A 68-year-old with right middle lobe pneumonia is alert and oriented. Urea is 8.5 mmol/L, respiratory rate 32/min and blood pressure 110/70 mmHg. What is his CURB-65 score and where should he be managed?

A.3; admit to hospital as severe pneumonia

B.0; outpatient oral amoxicillin

C.1; home treatment with review in 48 hours

D.5; palliative care because death is expected

Explanation: CURB-65 gives 1 point each for confusion, urea above 7 mmol/L, respiratory rate of 30/min or more, systolic BP below 90 or diastolic 60 mmHg or less, and age 65 or over. He scores urea, respiratory rate and age, a total of 3, indicating severe pneumonia that needs admission.

5A dialysis patient with potassium 7.4 mmol/L and peaked T waves has received intravenous calcium gluconate. Which treatment now lowers serum potassium fastest by shifting it into cells?

A.IV insulin 10 units with 25 g glucose

B.Oral sodium polystyrene sulfonate resin, 15 g

C.Intravenous furosemide 80 mg as a bolus

D.A second dose of IV calcium gluconate 10 mL

Explanation: Calcium stabilises the myocardium but does not lower potassium. Insulin with glucose moves potassium into cells within 15 to 30 minutes, lowering it by roughly 0.6 to 1 mmol/L; nebulised salbutamol adds to this. Dialysis then removes potassium from the body, and glucose is monitored for hypoglycaemia.

6A 45-year-old with pneumonia is hypotensive (78/48 mmHg) with a lactate of 4.2 mmol/L. Which set of initial actions follows the Surviving Sepsis Campaign recommendations?

A.Wait for blood culture results before starting any antibiotics

B.Give vasopressors first and withhold fluids to avoid oedema

C.Cultures, antibiotics within 1 hour and 30 mL/kg crystalloid

D.Give a 250 mL fluid bolus and review antibiotics the next day

Explanation: For possible septic shock, the guidelines advise immediate antimicrobials, ideally within 1 hour, after blood cultures if they do not delay treatment. They also suggest 30 mL/kg of IV crystalloid within the first 3 hours for hypotension or a lactate of 4 mmol/L or more, repeat lactate measurement, and norepinephrine if MAP stays below 65 mmHg.

7A 62-year-old arrives 75 minutes after sudden right hemiplegia and aphasia. CT shows no haemorrhage, blood pressure is 168/94 mmHg and glucose is 6.2 mmol/L. What is the most appropriate treatment?

A.Lower blood pressure to below 120/80 mmHg with nitroprusside

B.Start full-dose intravenous heparin

C.Refer for immediate decompressive craniectomy

D.IV alteplase within 4.5 hours of onset

Explanation: Acute ischaemic stroke within 4.5 hours of onset, with no haemorrhage on CT and blood pressure below 185/110 mmHg, is treated with IV thrombolysis (alteplase 0.9 mg/kg) if there are no contraindications. Eligible patients with large-vessel occlusion may also be considered for thrombectomy where available.

8A 28-year-old has fever, headache, photophobia and neck stiffness. CSF is cloudy with 2,400 white cells/mm3 (92% neutrophils), protein 2.8 g/L and a CSF:blood glucose ratio below 0.2. What is the diagnosis and initial treatment?

A.Viral meningitis; oral aciclovir and analgesia

B.Cryptococcal meningitis; oral fluconazole alone

C.Tuberculous meningitis; isoniazid and ethambutol without steroids

D.Bacterial meningitis; IV ceftriaxone plus dexamethasone

Explanation: Neutrophilic pleocytosis, high protein and very low glucose indicate bacterial meningitis. High-dose IV ceftriaxone is started urgently (with ampicillin added where Listeria is a concern), and adjunctive dexamethasone given with or just before the first antibiotic dose reduces neurological complications in many settings.

9A patient with cirrhosis and ascites has fever and diffuse abdominal tenderness. Diagnostic paracentesis shows an ascitic neutrophil count of 480 cells/mm3. What is the diagnosis and treatment?

A.SBP; IV cefotaxime or ceftriaxone plus albumin

B.Uncomplicated ascites; spironolactone and salt restriction only

C.Secondary peritonitis from perforation; immediate laparotomy

D.Hepatorenal syndrome; terlipressin and albumin infusion

Explanation: An ascitic neutrophil count of 250 cells/mm3 or more diagnoses spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. Empirical IV cefotaxime or ceftriaxone is started, and IV albumin reduces the risk of hepatorenal syndrome and death. Patients who recover need secondary prophylaxis.

10A woman with Graves disease presents with fever of 39.8 degrees C, atrial fibrillation at 152/min, agitation and jaundice after an untreated infection. Thyroid storm is diagnosed. Which treatment sequence is correct?

A.Potassium iodide first, then a thionamide and radioactive iodine

B.Emergency total thyroidectomy without any medical preparation

C.Propranolol, thionamide, iodine an hour later, hydrocortisone

D.Intravenous levothyroxine followed by an amiodarone infusion

Explanation: Thyroid storm is treated with beta-blockade for adrenergic symptoms, a thionamide to block new hormone synthesis, inorganic iodine at least an hour later to block hormone release, and hydrocortisone, which reduces T4-to-T3 conversion and covers relative adrenal insufficiency. Supportive care includes cooling, IV fluids and treatment of the precipitating infection.

About the Rwanda Medical and Dental Council Licensure Examination Exam

The RMDC Licensure Examination is required of general medical and dental practitioners whose degrees come from medical schools not accredited by EAC councils, or from other foreign medical schools, before they can register in Rwanda. It is a comprehensive General Medicine or Dental Surgery examination: 200 written single-best-answer MCQs followed by an OSCE-style practical, each with a 50% pass mark. Successful candidates without a recognised 12-month internship receive a provisional licence for a mandatory internship. This free page offers 100 independent General Medicine practice MCQs with explanations, built around the official General Medicine blueprint; it does not cover the Dental Surgery examination. It is an English-language MCQ study adaptation and not an official RMDC paper or OSCE simulation.

Exam sponsor: Rwanda Medical and Dental Council (RMDC). The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

Under the RMDC Licensure Examinations Policy (second edition, October 2020), the examination is a comprehensive assessment in either General Medicine or Dental Surgery; separate discipline-based examinations are no longer held. The written part is 200 single-best-answer MCQs taken in two sessions of 100 questions and 2.5 hours each. Candidates scoring at least 50% overall proceed to a practical examination in OSCE format within 45 days (at least 15 stations of at least 5 minutes for General Medicine; station formats for Dental Surgery are set by the moderators). Both parts are set from published blueprints, and candidates may make up to four attempts within four consecutive years.

Time Limit

5 hours (two 2.5-hour written sessions), plus the practical examination

Passing Score

50% overall in the written examination and 50% in the practical examination

Exam / Certification Fees

50,000 RWF for Rwandan and EAC partner-state candidates; USD 100 for other foreign candidates; payable again for each sitting

Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Official sources

RMDC Licensure Examinations Policy, Second Edition (October 2020) · Source checked 2026-10-12
RMDC Licensure Examinations Blueprint: General Medicine · Source checked 2026-10-12
RMDC Licensure Examinations Blueprint: Dental Surgery · Source checked 2026-10-12
RMDC Licensure Examinations page · Source checked 2026-10-12
RMDC call for applications: June 2026 written licensure examinations · Source checked 2026-10-12

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

Not published

Internal Medicine

Severe malaria, advanced HIV, TB-IRIS, sepsis, acute coronary syndromes, heart failure, stroke, DKA and HHS, liver disease, kidney injury and pleural disease.

Not published

Surgery and Trauma

Primary survey, chest trauma, FAST, acute abdomen, hernias, burns, compartment syndrome, open fractures, head injury, urology and perioperative safety.

Not published

Obstetrics and Gynaecology

WHO antenatal care, pre-eclampsia, postpartum haemorrhage, abortion care, abruption, ectopic pregnancy, preterm labour, sepsis, contraception and cervical screening.

Not published

Paediatrics and Child Health

Neonatal sepsis and resuscitation, IMCI danger signs and dehydration plans, SAM, pneumonia, status epilepticus, foreign bodies and Rwanda's vaccination calendar.

Not published

Public Health, Ethics and Health Systems

Ethical principles, consent, notifiable diseases and IDSR, rabies exposure, CBHI, outbreak investigation, SPIKES, death certification and WHO building blocks.

Preparing for the Rwanda Medical and Dental Council Licensure Examination Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: 50% overall in the written examination and 50% in the practical examination
Assessment: Under the RMDC Licensure Examinations Policy (second edition, October 2020), the examination is a comprehensive assessment in either General Medicine or Dental Surgery; separate discipline-based examinations are no longer held. The written part is 200 single-best-answer MCQs taken in two sessions of 100 questions and 2.5 hours each. Candidates scoring at least 50% overall proceed to a practical examination in OSCE format within 45 days (at least 15 stations of at least 5 minutes for General Medicine; station formats for Dental Surgery are set by the moderators). Both parts are set from published blueprints, and candidates may make up to four attempts within four consecutive years.
Time limit: 5 hours (two 2.5-hour written sessions), plus the practical examination
Exam / certification fees: 50,000 RWF for Rwandan and EAC partner-state candidates; USD 100 for other foreign candidates; payable again for each sitting Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

Work through all 100 available questions
Review every answer and explanation
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Rwanda Medical and Dental Council Licensure Examination: Suggested Study Strategy

1Work through the General Medicine blueprint topic by topic; it spans obstetrics and gynaecology, internal medicine, surgery, paediatrics and public health.

2Practise single-best-answer questions under time pressure: each 2.5-hour paper has 100 questions, about 90 seconds per question.

3Prioritise conditions common in Rwanda, such as severe malaria, HIV with TB, maternal emergencies and childhood illness managed under IMCI.

4Prepare for the OSCE separately with history-taking, examination and communication practice, which MCQs cannot assess.

Frequently Asked Questions

Who must sit the RMDC licensure examination?

General medical or dental practitioners whose degrees come from medical or dental schools not accredited by EAC councils, or from any other foreign school, must pass the examination before registering with RMDC. The policy also sets limited waivers, for example for some very experienced practitioners reviewed by the Council.

What is the format of the examination?

The written part is 200 single-best-answer MCQs in two sessions of 100 questions, each lasting 2.5 hours. Candidates who pass then take a practical examination in OSCE format within 45 days, with at least 15 stations of at least 5 minutes for General Medicine.

What are the pass marks and attempt limits?

The pass mark is 50% overall in the written examination and 50% in the practical. Candidates may make up to four attempts within four consecutive years; after four failures they must wait two years before a final four attempts.

How much does the examination cost?

The policy sets the fee at 50,000 RWF for Rwandan and EAC partner-state candidates and USD 100 for other foreign candidates, paid to RMDC's Bank of Kigali account and payable again for each sitting. An appeal costs 5,000 RWF.

Do these questions cover the Dental Surgery examination?

No. This page covers the General Medicine examination only, using its published blueprint. The questions are independent English-language practice by OpenExamPrep, not RMDC items, and do not replace preparation for the OSCE.