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100+ Free PCN PEP Practice Questions
Pharmacy Council of Nigeria Pre-registration Examination for Pharmacists (PEP) practice questions are available now; exam metadata is being verified.
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Which pharmacist activity best supports antimicrobial stewardship?
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Sample PCN PEP Practice Questions
Try these sample questions to test your PCN PEP exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.
1A patient develops a persistent dry cough two weeks after starting lisinopril. Which mechanism best explains this adverse effect?
A.Accumulation of bradykinin after ACE inhibition
B.Reduced renal potassium excretion
C.Blockade of angiotensin II receptors
D.Direct beta-2 receptor stimulation
Explanation: ACE inhibitors reduce bradykinin breakdown. Bradykinin accumulation can cause a persistent dry cough and sometimes angioedema.
2A patient with type 2 diabetes has an eGFR of 24 mL/min/1.73 m2. Which oral antidiabetic should generally be avoided because of lactic acidosis risk?
A.Gliclazide
B.Metformin
C.Linagliptin
D.Acarbose
Explanation: Metformin is usually contraindicated or avoided in severe renal impairment, commonly eGFR below 30 mL/min/1.73 m2, because accumulation increases lactic acidosis risk.
3A patient taking furosemide is at greatest risk of which electrolyte abnormality?
A.Hyperphosphataemia
B.Hyponatraemia with hyperkalaemia
C.Hypokalaemia
D.Hypercalcaemia
Explanation: Loop diuretics inhibit sodium, potassium and chloride reabsorption in the thick ascending limb, causing potassium loss and possible hypokalaemia.
4Which laboratory test is most appropriate for routine monitoring of warfarin anticoagulation?
A.Activated clotting time
B.Bleeding time
C.Platelet count only
D.International normalized ratio
Explanation: Warfarin effect is monitored with the prothrombin time reported as INR. Dose changes should be guided by INR and bleeding or clotting risk.
5A patient with asthma is prescribed propranolol for tremor. What is the main concern?
A.Non-selective beta-blockade can precipitate bronchospasm
B.Propranolol is ineffective for tremor
C.Propranolol causes irreversible renal failure
D.Propranolol causes severe hypoglycaemia in all patients
Explanation: Propranolol blocks beta-1 and beta-2 receptors. Beta-2 blockade can worsen bronchoconstriction and should be avoided or used with great caution in asthma.
6Which counselling point is most appropriate for artemether-lumefantrine used for uncomplicated malaria?
A.Use it as weekly malaria chemoprophylaxis
B.Take doses with food or milk to improve lumefantrine absorption
C.Stop after the first dose once fever improves
D.Avoid all fluids during therapy
Explanation: Lumefantrine absorption is improved by food or milk. Patients should complete the full ACT regimen even if symptoms improve early.
7A patient is unconscious with suspected severe malaria. Which treatment approach is most appropriate before switching to oral therapy when stable?
A.Oral chloroquine only
B.Topical insect repellent only
C.Parenteral artesunate
D.Oral sulphadoxine-pyrimethamine as monotherapy
Explanation: Severe malaria requires urgent parenteral antimalarial therapy, with injectable artesunate preferred where available, followed by a full oral ACT course once the patient can tolerate oral medicines.
8A patient taking amoxicillin-clavulanate reports mild diarrhoea without blood, fever or dehydration. What is the best initial advice?
A.Double the antibiotic dose to shorten the course
B.Stop all medicines permanently without informing the prescriber
C.Take loperamide automatically for every antibiotic course
D.Continue the medicine, maintain fluids and seek care if severe or persistent symptoms develop
Explanation: Mild antibiotic-associated diarrhoea is common. The pharmacist should support hydration, encourage completion when appropriate, and refer if red flags suggest severe infection or colitis.
9A patient is prescribed ciprofloxacin and also takes an aluminium-magnesium antacid. What counselling prevents a common interaction?
A.Separate ciprofloxacin from antacids because polyvalent cations reduce absorption
B.Stop drinking water while taking ciprofloxacin
C.Crush ciprofloxacin with the antacid
D.Take both at the exact same time
Explanation: Fluoroquinolones chelate polyvalent cations in antacids, iron, zinc and calcium products. Separating administration helps prevent reduced antibiotic absorption.
10Which statement about rifampicin counselling is most accurate?
A.It is safe to use as monotherapy for active tuberculosis
B.It can discolor urine, sweat or tears orange and is a strong enzyme inducer
C.It has no clinically important drug interactions
D.It should be taken only once a month for tuberculosis
Explanation: Rifampicin commonly causes orange discoloration of body fluids and induces drug-metabolizing enzymes, reducing concentrations of many medicines. It must be used in combination regimens for TB.
About the PCN PEP Practice Questions
Verified exam format metadata for Pharmacy Council of Nigeria Pre-registration Examination for Pharmacists (PEP) is pending. The practice questions above remain available while official exam length, timing, passing score, fee, and administrator details are reviewed.