PracticeVideosBlogFlashcardsEspañol
All Practice Exams

Free Practice Questions for MMDC Medical Licensing Exam

Exam-style questions and explanations by OpenExamPrep.

✓ No registration✓ No credit card
105+ Questions
100% Free

Loading practice questions...

Sample MMDC Medical Licensing Exam Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the MMDC Medical Licensing Exam exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 105+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 58-year-old man with heavy smoking and alcohol use has progressive dysphagia, first to solids and now to liquids, and has lost 8 kg. Endoscopy shows an ulcerated circumferential mass 30 cm from the incisors, and biopsy confirms squamous cell carcinoma. Which anatomical feature of the esophagus most favors early local spread of this cancer into the mediastinum?
A.Its lymphatic drainage runs exclusively to the celiac nodes, bypassing the mediastinal nodes
B.The esophagus lacks a serosal (visceral peritoneal) covering over most of its length, so tumors spread early into the mediastinum
C.Its muscularis propria is smooth muscle throughout, which allows rapid tumor infiltration
D.Its mucosa is lined by columnar epithelium throughout its thoracic course
Explanation: Unlike the stomach and intestines, the thoracic esophagus has no serosa; its outer layer is loose adventitia. Without a serosal barrier, and with a longitudinal submucosal lymphatic plexus, esophageal cancers invade adjacent mediastinal structures (trachea, aorta, recurrent laryngeal nerves) and regional nodes early, which contributes to their poor prognosis.
2A 23-year-old female presents with severe pain in her right lower leg following a minor sprain. Her right leg has normal motor function. When testing cutaneous sensation, you discover sensory loss over the lateral aspect of her leg and the entire dorsum of her foot, with intact sensation in the first web space between the great toe and second toe. Which nerve is injured?
A.Deep peroneal (fibular) nerve
B.Tibial nerve
C.Saphenous nerve
D.Superficial peroneal (fibular) nerve
Explanation: The common peroneal nerve divides into superficial and deep peroneal branches. The superficial peroneal nerve innervates the lateral compartment of the leg (peroneus longus and brevis muscles for eversion) and provides cutaneous sensory innervation to the lower lateral leg and the majority of the dorsum of the foot. The first web space between the first and second toes is innervated exclusively by the deep peroneal nerve.
3A 3.9 kg newborn delivered after a difficult shoulder dystocia holds the right arm adducted and internally rotated at the shoulder, with the elbow extended, the forearm pronated, and the wrist flexed (the 'waiter's tip' posture). The grasp reflex is present. Which part of the brachial plexus is most likely injured?
A.Upper trunk (C5–C6 roots)
B.Lower trunk (C8–T1 roots)
C.Posterior cord
D.Medial cord
Explanation: The waiter's tip posture is Erb (Erb–Duchenne) palsy, caused by traction that widens the angle between the head and shoulder and injures the upper trunk (C5–C6). Paralysis of deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, biceps, brachialis, and supinator leaves the arm adducted, internally rotated, extended at the elbow, and pronated. The hand intrinsics (C8–T1) are spared, so the grasp reflex remains.
4During a left thyroid lobectomy, the surgeon identifies the left recurrent laryngeal nerve in the tracheoesophageal groove. Around which structure does the left recurrent laryngeal nerve hook before it ascends into the neck?
A.Right subclavian artery, behind the sternoclavicular joint
B.Left common carotid artery, at the root of the neck
C.Arch of the aorta, just lateral to the ligamentum arteriosum
D.Left pulmonary artery, at the hilum of the left lung
Explanation: The left recurrent laryngeal nerve leaves the left vagus in the thorax and hooks under the arch of the aorta, lateral to the ligamentum arteriosum, before ascending in the tracheoesophageal groove to supply all intrinsic laryngeal muscles except cricothyroid. Its long intrathoracic course explains why aortic arch aneurysms, left atrial enlargement, and hilar lung tumors can cause left vocal cord palsy and hoarseness.
5A 64-year-old woman has a painful, irreducible groin lump below and lateral to the pubic tubercle, and a strangulated femoral hernia is suspected. Where does a femoral hernia pass in relation to the femoral vessels?
A.Lateral to the femoral artery, alongside the femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve
B.Medial to the femoral vein, through the femoral canal
C.Between the femoral artery and the femoral vein
D.Lateral to the femoral nerve, outside the femoral sheath
Explanation: From lateral to medial, the femoral triangle contains the femoral nerve, artery, vein, the femoral canal ('empty space'), and lymphatics (NAVEL). The femoral canal is the medial compartment of the femoral sheath, lying immediately medial to the femoral vein and containing lymphatics and the lymph node of Cloquet. Its narrow, rigid ring (inguinal ligament anteriorly, lacunar ligament medially, pectineal ligament posteriorly) explains why femoral hernias strangulate readily.
6A 45-year-old woman with carpal tunnel syndrome has numbness of the thumb, index finger, middle finger, and lateral half of the ring finger. On examination, which movement is most likely to be weak?
A.Adduction of the thumb
B.Abduction of the index finger away from the middle finger
C.Extension of the wrist
D.Abduction of the thumb at a right angle to the palm
Explanation: In the hand, the median nerve supplies the lateral two lumbricals and, through its recurrent motor branch, the thenar muscles: opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, and flexor pollicis brevis. Weakness of abductor pollicis brevis, tested by lifting the thumb perpendicular to the palm against resistance, is the most useful motor sign of carpal tunnel syndrome, and thenar wasting occurs in advanced disease.
7Before an instrumental vaginal delivery, a medical officer performs a transvaginal pudendal nerve block. Toward which bony landmark is the needle guided to infiltrate the pudendal nerve?
A.Ischial spine
B.Ischial tuberosity
C.Sacral promontory
D.Pubic tubercle
Explanation: The pudendal nerve (S2–S4) leaves the pelvis through the greater sciatic foramen, crosses the sacrospinous ligament just medial to the ischial spine, and re-enters the perineum through the lesser sciatic foramen. In a transvaginal block, the palpable ischial spine guides the needle to infiltrate the nerve at the sacrospinous ligament, anaesthetising most of the perineum.
8A 45-year-old male with chronic alcoholism is brought to the emergency department drowsy with deep, rapid breathing. An arterial blood gas (ABG) sample obtained on room air reveals: pH 7.20, PaCO₂ 25 mmHg, PaO₂ 88 mmHg, and HCO₃⁻ 11 mEq/L. Serum electrolytes are: sodium 138 mEq/L, chloride 98 mEq/L, and potassium 4.0 mEq/L. What is the primary acid-base disturbance and anion gap status?
A.Normal anion gap (hyperchloremic) metabolic acidosis with an anion gap of 12 mEq/L
B.Primary acute respiratory acidosis with complete metabolic compensation
C.High anion gap metabolic acidosis (HAGMA) with an anion gap of 29 mEq/L
D.Mixed metabolic alkalosis and respiratory alkalosis
Explanation: The pH of 7.20 indicates systemic acidemia. The low bicarbonate (11 mEq/L) confirms a primary metabolic acidosis. The serum anion gap is calculated as: Na⁺ - (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻) = 138 - (98 + 11) = 29 mEq/L (normal is 8–12 mEq/L). An anion gap of 29 mEq/L confirms a High Anion Gap Metabolic Acidosis (HAGMA), classic for alcoholic ketoacidosis, lactic acidosis, or toxic ingestion. Winter's formula predicts a compensatory PaCO₂ of 1.5 × 11 + 8 = 24.5 ± 2 mmHg, so the measured 25 mmHg reflects appropriate respiratory compensation.
9An arterial blood gas (ABG) sample drawn from a patient breathing room air demonstrates the following values: pH 7.50, PaCO₂ 24 mmHg, PaO₂ 98 mmHg, and HCO₃⁻ 18 mEq/L. What is the primary acid-base disorder and the compensatory mechanism?
A.Primary respiratory alkalosis with compensatory renal bicarbonate elimination
B.Primary metabolic alkalosis with compensatory alveolar hypoventilation
C.Primary respiratory acidosis with complete metabolic compensation
D.Mixed normal anion gap metabolic acidosis and high anion gap acidosis
Explanation: A pH of 7.50 represents systemic alkalemia (normal 7.35–7.45). The markedly reduced PaCO₂ (24 mmHg, normal 35–45 mmHg) confirms a primary respiratory alkalosis resulting from alveolar hyperventilation. The compensatory physiological response is renal excretion of bicarbonate, reflected by the decreased serum bicarbonate (18 mEq/L, normal 22–26 mEq/L), which partially restores the pH toward normal.
10A 68-year-old male with a history of hypertension and osteoarthritis presents with acute kidney injury after taking high-dose naproxen for 2 weeks while taking enalapril. Serum creatinine has increased from a baseline of 1.0 mg/dL to 2.8 mg/dL. What physiological hemodynamic mechanism explains the synergistic reduction in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) caused by concurrent ACE inhibitor and NSAID administration?
A.NSAIDs constrict the efferent arteriole, while ACE inhibitors dilate the afferent arteriole
B.Both agents cause direct toxic necrosis of collecting-duct epithelium, producing muddy brown casts
C.Both agents cause massive immune complex deposition in the glomerular basement membrane
D.NSAIDs remove prostaglandin-mediated afferent dilation, while ACE inhibitors remove angiotensin II-mediated efferent constriction
Explanation: Glomerular filtration pressure is maintained by relative tone between the afferent and efferent arterioles. Renal prostaglandins (PGE2, PGI2) dilate the afferent arteriole to preserve inflow, while angiotensin II selectively constricts the efferent arteriole to maintain intraglomerular pressure. NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandin synthesis, causing afferent vasoconstriction; ACE inhibitors block angiotensin II, causing efferent vasodilation. Combined, they drastically drop intraglomerular hydrostatic pressure, precipitating acute prerenal azotemia.

About the MMDC Medical Licensing Exam Exam

The MMDC Medical Licensing Examination is the licensing exam that medical graduates must pass to be licensed as general medical practitioners in the Maldives. Graduates who have not yet passed receive a 1-year restricted licence. The Council registers candidates, and The Maldives National University runs the computer-based exam and issues results. OpenExamPrep offers independent practice questions organized by the MMDC basic science and clinical subjects.

Exam sponsor: Maldives Medical and Dental Council (MMDC), Ministry of Health; delivered by The Maldives National University. The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

A 3-hour computer-based exam held at The Maldives National University. Part 1 (50 minutes) has 45 basic science questions: anatomy 10, physiology 10, biochemistry 4, pathology 5, pharmacology 5, preventive and social medicine 4, forensic medicine 2, medical ethics and medico-legal 2, and microbiology 3. Part 2 (2 hours) has 105 clinical questions: internal medicine 18, surgery 18, pediatrics 18, obstetrics and gynecology 14, orthopedics 8, ENT 4, ophthalmology 4, psychiatry 2, dermatology 3, anesthesia 3, radiology 1, and emergency medicine 12.

Time Limit

3 hours (Part 1: 50 minutes; Part 2: 2 hours)

Passing Score

50% (75 of 150 marks)

Exam / Certification Fees

MVR 3,000 per attempt

Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Official sources

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

13% (20 of 150 questions)

Part 1 — Anatomy and Physiology

10 anatomy and 10 physiology questions: applied gross anatomy, peripheral nerves, and cardiovascular, respiratory, renal, and endocrine physiology.

11% (17 of 150 questions)

Part 1 — Biochemistry, Pathology, Microbiology, and Pharmacology

4 biochemistry, 5 pathology, 3 microbiology, and 5 pharmacology questions: disease mechanisms, inflammation and neoplasia, hematology, infecting organisms, and drug action and toxicity.

5% (8 of 150 questions)

Part 1 — Preventive and Social Medicine, Forensic Medicine, and Medical Ethics

4 preventive and social medicine, 2 forensic medicine, and 2 medical ethics and medico-legal questions: national immunization and disease-control programmes, epidemiology, injuries and poisoning, consent, confidentiality, and negligence.

12% (18 of 150 questions)

Part 2 — Internal Medicine

Cardiovascular, respiratory, neurological, gastrointestinal, hematological, renal, endocrine, rheumatological, and infectious diseases, including dengue, scrub typhus, leptospirosis, TB, and HIV.

12% (18 of 150 questions)

Part 2 — Surgery

Hernias, acute abdomen, breast and neck lumps, gastrointestinal and urological surgery, vascular disease, wounds and surgical infection, raised intracranial pressure, and ATLS-based trauma care.

12% (18 of 150 questions)

Part 2 — Pediatrics

Growth and development, breastfeeding, neonatal problems and resuscitation, childhood infections, dehydration, hemoglobinopathies including thalassemia, and pediatric cardiac, renal, and endocrine disorders.

9% (14 of 150 questions)

Part 2 — Obstetrics and Gynecology

Normal and complicated pregnancy, labour and the puerperium, antepartum and postpartum hemorrhage, hypertensive disorders, Rh isoimmunization, menstrual and endocrine disorders, genital infections, gynecological cancers, and contraception.

8% (12 of 150 questions)

Part 2 — Emergency Medicine

Resuscitation and cardiac, respiratory, gastrointestinal, neurological, metabolic, and toxicological emergencies, shock (including dengue shock syndrome), and injuries.

17% (25 of 150 questions)

Part 2 — Orthopedics, ENT, Ophthalmology, Dermatology, Anesthesia, Psychiatry, and Radiology

8 orthopedics, 4 ENT, 4 ophthalmology, 3 dermatology, 3 anesthesia, 2 psychiatry, and 1 radiology question.

Preparing for the MMDC Medical Licensing Exam Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 50% (75 of 150 marks)
  • Assessment: A 3-hour computer-based exam held at The Maldives National University. Part 1 (50 minutes) has 45 basic science questions: anatomy 10, physiology 10, biochemistry 4, pathology 5, pharmacology 5, preventive and social medicine 4, forensic medicine 2, medical ethics and medico-legal 2, and microbiology 3. Part 2 (2 hours) has 105 clinical questions: internal medicine 18, surgery 18, pediatrics 18, obstetrics and gynecology 14, orthopedics 8, ENT 4, ophthalmology 4, psychiatry 2, dermatology 3, anesthesia 3, radiology 1, and emergency medicine 12.
  • Time limit: 3 hours (Part 1: 50 minutes; Part 2: 2 hours)
  • Exam / certification fees: MVR 3,000 per attempt Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

  • Work through all 105 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

MMDC Medical Licensing Exam: Suggested Study Strategy

1Plan revision by MMDC's question distribution: basic sciences carry 45 of the 150 questions, so do not skip anatomy, physiology, pathology, and pharmacology.
2Internal medicine, surgery, and pediatrics carry 18 questions each; follow the topic lists in MMDC's guide, including dengue, scrub typhus, leptospirosis, TB, and thalassemia.
3Practise emergency algorithms—resuscitation, shock (including dengue shock syndrome), acute poisoning, and ATLS-based trauma care—because emergency medicine carries 12 questions.
4Review Maldivian public health programmes, including the national immunization schedule, which added rotavirus and pneumococcal conjugate vaccines in December 2025.
5Use timed sets: Part 1 allows about 67 seconds per question, and Part 2 about 69 seconds per question.

Frequently Asked Questions

Who must pass the MMDC Medical Licensing Examination?

Medical graduates who meet MMDC's criteria for registration as general medical practitioners must pass it to obtain a practising licence. MMDC's guideline issues a 1-year restricted licence, with supervised practice, to eligible graduates who have not yet passed.

What is the format of the MMDC licensing exam?

MMDC's guide describes a 3-hour computer-based exam of 150 single-best-answer multiple-choice questions: Part 1 has 45 basic science questions (50 minutes), and Part 2 has 105 clinical questions (2 hours).

What is the pass mark and fee?

Each question carries 1 mark, and the pass mark is 50% (75 of 150 marks). MMDC's fee schedule lists MVR 3,000 for each attempt, paid to The Maldives National University before the exam.

When and where is the exam held in 2026?

The Maldives National University lists monthly sittings from 27 January 2026 to 26 January 2027 at its campuses in Male', Kulhudhuffushi, Gan, Thinadhoo, and Hithadhoo. The date, time, and venue are stated on the Council's Exam Requisition slip, and results are emailed within three working days.

Are these practice questions official MMDC questions?

No. These are independent practice questions by OpenExamPrep for the topics listed in MMDC's exam guide. They use four answer options and are not affiliated with, approved by, or endorsed by the Maldives Medical and Dental Council or The Maldives National University.