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100+ Free Instrument Rating IR(A) Practice Questions

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: Instrument Rating IR(A) Exam

60

Official Questions

CAASL

1h 30m

Time Limit

CAASL

LKR 3,000

Exam Fee

CAASL 2026

75%

Pass Mark

CAASL

36 Months

Validity Period

CAASL / EASA Part-FCL

Katunayake

Exam Location

CAASL Center

The CAASL Instrument Rating (Aeroplane) written exam tests a pilot's proficiency in flight planning, meteorology, air law, and radio navigation for IFR flight.

Sample Instrument Rating IR(A) Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your Instrument Rating IR(A) exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1To maintain a standard 3-degree glide path during an instrument approach, which of the following is the correct formula to approximate the required rate of descent (ROD) in feet per minute?
A.Multiply the groundspeed (in knots) by 5
B.Multiply the true airspeed (in knots) by 5
C.Multiply the groundspeed (in knots) by 10 and divide by 3
D.Multiply the indicated airspeed (in knots) by 3
Explanation: A standard 3-degree glide path represents a vertical gradient of approximately 5% (52.3 feet per nautical mile). To estimate the required rate of descent (ROD) in feet per minute, multiply the groundspeed in knots by 5. For example, at a groundspeed of 120 knots, the required ROD is 120 x 5 = 600 feet per minute. Indicated or True airspeeds are not used because wind affects groundspeed and thus the actual descent profile relative to the earth.
2An aircraft is flying at an indicated altitude of 10,000 feet. The outside air temperature (OAT) is -20°C. What is the approximate true altitude of the aircraft, assuming the altimeter setting is correct and standard lapse rates apply?
A.9,400 feet
B.10,600 feet
C.8,800 feet
D.10,000 feet
Explanation: Altimeter temperature error is approximately 4 feet per 1,000 feet of indicated altitude for every 1°C deviation from the standard (ISA) temperature. At 10,000 feet, standard ISA temperature is -5°C (15°C - 2°C x 10). The actual temperature of -20°C represents a deviation of -15°C (colder than standard). The correction is -15°C x 4 feet/1,000 feet x 10 = -600 feet. Therefore, the true altitude is approximately 10,000 - 600 = 9,400 feet.
3Under EASA Part-FCL and CAASL regulations, what is the minimum height above the threshold for an ILS Category I approach at which the pilot must establish visual reference to continue the descent?
A.Decision Height (DH) of 200 feet
B.Minimum Descent Height (MDH) of 250 feet
C.Decision Height (DH) of 100 feet
D.Obstacle Clearance Height (OCH) of 250 feet
Explanation: A standard Category I ILS precision approach has a standard Decision Height (DH) of not less than 200 feet (60 meters) above the runway threshold. At this height, the pilot must have the required visual references in sight to continue descending; otherwise, an immediate missed approach must be initiated. Minimum Descent Height (MDH) applies to non-precision approaches, while a 100-foot DH applies to Category II approaches.
4In the standard holding pattern, what is the maximum speed permitted for a Category B aircraft holding at or below 14,000 feet MSL under normal conditions?
A.230 KIAS
B.170 KIAS
C.240 KIAS
D.265 KIAS
Explanation: According to ICAO PANS-OPS Doc 8168, the maximum holding speed under normal conditions for all propeller-driven and jet aircraft at or below 14,000 feet is 230 KIAS (except where limited by the procedure). This speed ensures the aircraft remains within the protected holding airspace. For Category A and B aircraft under specific limited procedures, 170 KIAS can be specified, but the general limit up to 14,000 feet is 230 KIAS.
5An aircraft is tracking inbound to an NDB station on a magnetic course of 360°. The magnetic heading is 010°. What is the relative bearing indicated on the Relative Bearing Indicator (RBI)?
A.350°
B.010°
C.340°
D.020°
Explanation: The formula relating magnetic heading, relative bearing, and magnetic bearing to the station is: Magnetic Bearing TO (MB TO) = Magnetic Heading (MH) + Relative Bearing (RB). Here, the inbound track (MB TO) is 360° and the MH is 010°. Rearranging the formula: RB = MB TO - MH = 360° - 010° = 350°. Therefore, the RBI pointer will indicate a relative bearing of 350°.
6What is the primary operational effect of an increase in density altitude on instrument takeoff performance?
A.It increases the true airspeed (TAS) at which rotation occurs, lengthening the takeoff roll
B.It decreases the true airspeed (TAS) at which rotation occurs, shortening the takeoff roll
C.It increases the engine thrust output for both piston and turbine engines
D.It decreases the calibrated airspeed (CAS) required for liftoff, reducing structural loads
Explanation: An increase in density altitude reduces air density, which means the aircraft must reach a higher True Airspeed (TAS) to generate the same lift (since lift is proportional to density and TAS squared). The required Indicated Airspeed (IAS) for rotation remains unchanged, but the corresponding TAS is higher, resulting in a longer ground roll. Furthermore, reduced air density decreases engine performance and thrust, further extending the takeoff distance.
7Which of the following describes the 'Cone of Confusion' associated with a VOR station?
A.The airspace directly above the station where VOR signals cannot be received reliably, causing rapid pointer oscillations and 'OFF' flags
B.The area of signal masking behind mountainous terrain where line-of-sight propagation is blocked
C.The angular sector of 10 degrees on either side of the selected course where course deviation is highly sensitive
D.The interference zone between two VOR stations operating on the same frequency in close proximity
Explanation: The VOR transmitter sends signals horizontally, leaving a conical volume of airspace directly above the station where signals are weak or unreadable. As an aircraft flies through this 'cone of confusion', the CDI (Course Deviation Indicator) fluctuates rapidly, the TO/FROM indicator changes state, and the warning flag ('OFF') may appear temporarily. Pilots must maintain a stable heading and wait for the signals to stabilize once clear of the cone.
8Under ICAO rules, what is the standard value of the Minimum Obstacle Clearance (MOC) provided in the primary area of a standard holding pattern in non-mountainous terrain?
A.984 feet (300 meters)
B.492 feet (150 meters)
C.1,476 feet (450 meters)
D.2,000 feet (610 meters)
Explanation: In the design of holding procedures (ICAO Doc 8168), the primary area provides a minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) of 984 feet (300 meters) over all obstacles in non-mountainous terrain. This clearance decreases progressively to zero at the outer edge of the secondary area. In designated mountainous areas, the MOC is increased to provide additional safety margins against down-drafts and altimeter errors.
9What type of ice is formed when small supercooled water droplets freeze rapidly upon contact with the aircraft surface, trapping air within the structure?
A.Rime ice
B.Clear ice
C.Mixed ice
D.Frost
Explanation: Rime ice forms when small supercooled water droplets (common in stratified clouds) freeze instantly upon impacting the aircraft's cold skin. Because they freeze instantly, air is trapped between the droplets, giving rime ice a rough, milky-white, and opaque appearance. It typically accumulates on leading edges and alters the airfoil shape, increasing drag and decreasing lift.
10At a true airspeed (TAS) of 150 knots, what bank angle is required to achieve a Rate 1 standard rate turn (3 degrees per second)?
A.22.5°
B.15°
C.30°
D.12°
Explanation: To estimate the bank angle required for a standard rate (Rate 1) turn, use the rule of thumb: Bank Angle = (TAS / 10) + 7. For a TAS of 150 knots: (150 / 10) + 7 = 15 + 7 = 22.5°. This approximation is accurate within a few degrees for typical general aviation speeds.

About the Instrument Rating IR(A) Exam

The Civil Aviation Authority of Sri Lanka (CAASL) Instrument Rating (Aeroplane) theoretical knowledge exam is a comprehensive assessment designed for pilots seeking privileges to fly under Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) in Sri Lankan and international airspace. Grounded in the EASA Part-FCL syllabus, the examination ensures that candidates possess the requisite knowledge of complex flight instruments, advanced meteorology, instrument flight rules, and radio navigation aids.

Assessment

60 multiple-choice questions

Time Limit

1 hour and 30 minutes

Passing Score

75%

Exam Fee

LKR 3,000 (Civil Aviation Authority of Sri Lanka (CAASL) Examination Center)

Instrument Rating IR(A) Exam Content Outline

20%

Air Law & ATC Procedures

Covers Rules of the Air, airspace, departure/arrival/holding procedures (PANS-OPS), altimeter setting procedures, and air traffic services.

15%

Aircraft General Knowledge - Instrumentation

Covers pitot-static instruments, gyroscopic instruments, Air Data Computers (ADC), magnetic compass errors, flight director, and autopilot systems.

25%

Radio Navigation & PBN

Covers ADF/NDB, VOR, DME slant range calculations, ILS components, transponders, enroute charts, and Performance-Based Navigation (RNAV/RNP).

20%

Meteorology

Covers icing (rime vs. clear), turbulence, thunderstorms, fog types, microburst wind shear, METAR/TAF/SIGMET reading, and temperature altimetry errors.

20%

Flight Planning & Operational Procedures

Covers IFR flight plans, contingency and alternate fuel calculations, climb/descent gradients, alternate airport requirements, and emergency communication failure routing.

How to Pass the Instrument Rating IR(A) Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 75%
  • Assessment: 60 multiple-choice questions
  • Time limit: 1 hour and 30 minutes
  • Exam fee: LKR 3,000

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

Instrument Rating IR(A) Study Tips from Top Performers

1Master VOR and ADF tracking mechanics, relative bearings, and heading calculations to solve navigation problems quickly.
2Understand the difference between altimeter temperature errors and altimeter static blockages, as these are frequently tested.
3Memorize the ICAO PANS-OPS speed limits for holding and circling approaches based on aircraft category.
4Practice decoding real-world METAR, TAF, and SIGMET reports, paying close attention to icing and wind shear indicators.
5Learn the fuel calculation guidelines, particularly final reserve requirements for both turbine (30 minutes) and piston (45 minutes) aeroplanes.
6Review the standard routing and altitude requirements for a total radio communication failure in IMC.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the structure of the CAASL Instrument Rating exam?

The official exam consists of 60 multiple-choice questions. It is a computer-based test conducted at the CAASL Exam Center in Katunayake. Candidates have 1 hour and 30 minutes to complete the test.

What is the passing score and fee for the exam?

The passing score is 75%, meaning you must answer at least 45 out of 60 questions correctly. The official examination fee set by CAASL is LKR 3,000 per attempt.

What happens if I fail an attempt?

If you do not pass, you can apply for a retake in the next available exam session after paying the LKR 3,000 fee. Under CAASL guidelines, you have a maximum of 4 attempts per subject within an 18-month window from your first attempt.

Does this exam align with EASA standards?

Yes, CAASL pilot exams are structured in accordance with EASA Part-FCL requirements, meaning the questions align closely with the EASA Instrument Rating (Aeroplane) theoretical knowledge learning objectives.

How long is the written exam result valid?

Once passed, the theoretical knowledge exam results remain valid for 36 months for the purpose of the issue of an Instrument Rating, calculated from the date you pass the final subject.