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100+ Free CPL Flight Performance and Planning Practice Questions

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Key Facts: CPL Flight Performance and Planning Exam

60

Exam Questions

CAASL

3h 15m

Exam Time

CAASL

LKR 2,000

Exam Fee

CAASL

75%

Passing Score

CAASL

Katunayake

Exam Location

CAASL Exam Center

Master the key topics of mass and balance, aircraft performance, and flight planning & monitoring required for the CAASL CPL theory examination.

Sample CPL Flight Performance and Planning Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your CPL Flight Performance and Planning exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1An aircraft has a Basic Empty Mass (BEM) of 1,200 kg with a moment of 3,000 kg.m. The pilot loads front seat occupants at 150 kg (arm 1.60 m), rear seat occupants at 150 kg (arm 2.50 m), and usable fuel of 100 kg (arm 2.00 m). What is the center of gravity (CG) of the aircraft in its loaded configuration?
A.2.38 m aft of datum
B.2.12 m aft of datum
C.2.55 m aft of datum
D.1.98 m aft of datum
Explanation: To determine the loaded center of gravity, calculate the sum of the moments and divide by the total mass. The total mass is 1,600 kg (1,200 + 150 + 150 + 100). The total moment is the sum of BEM moment (3,000 kg.m), front seat moment (150 * 1.60 = 240 kg.m), rear seat moment (150 * 2.50 = 375 kg.m), and fuel moment (100 * 2.00 = 200 kg.m), which equals 3,815 kg.m. Dividing 3,815 kg.m by 1,600 kg results in a center of gravity position of approximately 2.38 m aft of the datum.
2An aircraft has a total mass of 3,500 kg and its CG is located at 1.45 m aft of the datum. If a cargo item of 80 kg is shifted from the rear baggage compartment (arm 3.20 m) to the forward compartment (arm 1.20 m), what is the new CG position?
A.1.40 m aft of datum
B.1.49 m aft of datum
C.1.36 m aft of datum
D.1.25 m aft of datum
Explanation: The change in CG position is calculated using the formula: Change in CG = (moved weight * distance shifted) / total mass. The distance shifted is 3.20 m - 1.20 m = 2.00 m forward. The change in CG is (80 kg * 2.00 m) / 3,500 kg = 0.0457 m forward. The new CG is 1.45 m - 0.046 m = 1.404 m aft, which rounds to 1.40 m aft of datum.
3A cargo box weighing 480 kg is loaded onto a rectangular pallet measuring 1.2 m by 0.8 m. The floor load limit of the cargo compartment is 450 kg/m². If the box is placed flat on the pallet, does it exceed the limit, and what is the actual floor intensity?
A.No, the actual intensity is 384 kg/m²
B.Yes, the actual intensity is 500 kg/m²
C.Yes, the actual intensity is 600 kg/m²
D.No, the actual intensity is 400 kg/m²
Explanation: The floor area of the pallet is calculated as length * width: 1.2 m * 0.8 m = 0.96 m². The actual floor intensity is the weight divided by this area: 480 kg / 0.96 m² = 500 kg/m². Since the actual intensity (500 kg/m²) is greater than the limit of 450 kg/m², it exceeds the limit.
4Given: Mean Aerodynamic Chord (MAC) is 2.0 m, and the Leading Edge of the MAC (LEMAC) is 1.5 m aft of the datum. If the center of gravity (CG) of the aircraft is located at 1.9 m aft of the datum, what is the CG expressed as a percentage of the MAC (% MAC)?
A.10% MAC
B.20% MAC
C.25% MAC
D.30% MAC
Explanation: The position of the CG relative to LEMAC is calculated as: CG - LEMAC = 1.9 m - 1.5 m = 0.4 m. The percentage of MAC is then (0.4 m / MAC length) * 100 = (0.4 / 2.0) * 100 = 20% MAC.
5What is the structural and aerodynamic consequence of loading an aircraft such that the center of gravity is located further aft than the certified aft limit?
A.Decreased longitudinal stability, difficulty in stall recovery, and light elevator control forces
B.Increased longitudinal stability, high elevator control forces, and high stall speed
C.Severe nose heaviness during landing rotation and reduced rudder effectiveness
D.Increased structural load factor on the wings due to excessive tail downforce
Explanation: Operating with an aft CG reduces the distance between the CG and the aerodynamic center of the wing, which directly decreases longitudinal stability. This leads to lighter elevator control forces, high sensitivity, and potentially dangerous pitching characteristics during a stall, making recovery difficult or impossible.
6What are the primary operational disadvantages of operating an aircraft at or near its forward center of gravity (CG) limit?
A.Higher stall speed, increased fuel consumption (due to higher trim drag), and reduced elevator authority during landing flare
B.Lower stall speed, decreased elevator sensitivity, and reduced nose wheel loading
C.Increased cruise speed, reduced structural stress, and poor directional stability
D.Increased range, reduced trim drag, and higher risk of tail strike during takeoff
Explanation: A forward CG requires a larger downward aerodynamic force from the horizontal stabilizer to maintain level flight. This downward force increases the effective weight of the aircraft, which raises the stall speed and generates high trim drag (reducing fuel efficiency). Additionally, elevator control authority may be insufficient to raise the nose during landing flare.
7Which of the following masses is defined as the maximum mass of an aircraft containing no usable fuel, such that any additional mass loaded must consist solely of fuel?
A.Maximum Zero Fuel Mass (MZFM)
B.Maximum Takeoff Mass (MTOM)
C.Dry Operating Mass (DOM)
D.Maximum Landing Mass (MLM)
Explanation: Maximum Zero Fuel Mass (MZFM) is the structural design limit representing the maximum weight of the fuselage and its contents (excluding fuel in the wing tanks). This limit is established to prevent excessive wing-root bending moments during flight when lift is generated by the wings.
8An aircraft has a Maximum Takeoff Mass (MTOM) of 65,000 kg, Maximum Landing Mass (MLM) of 54,000 kg, and Maximum Zero Fuel Mass (MZFM) of 53,000 kg. Given the following operational masses: Dry Operating Mass (DOM) = 38,000 kg, Takeoff Fuel = 12,000 kg, and Trip Fuel = 8,000 kg. What is the maximum allowed traffic load that can be loaded?
A.15,000 kg
B.12,000 kg
C.16,000 kg
D.14,000 kg
Explanation: Calculate the traffic load limit for each of the three structural cases: 1) Based on MTOM: 65,000 - 38,000 (DOM) - 12,000 (Takeoff Fuel) = 15,000 kg. 2) Based on MZFM: 53,000 - 38,000 (DOM) = 15,000 kg. 3) Based on MLM: 54,000 - 38,000 (DOM) - 4,000 (Takeoff Fuel minus Trip Fuel = Reserve Fuel) = 12,000 kg. The lowest and most restrictive limit is 12,000 kg, which is dictated by the MLM.
9What is the primary difference between the Dry Operating Mass (DOM) and the Operating Mass (OM) of an aircraft?
A.Operating Mass includes the takeoff fuel, whereas Dry Operating Mass does not
B.Dry Operating Mass includes the traffic load, whereas Operating Mass does not
C.Operating Mass includes the crew and catering, whereas Dry Operating Mass does not
D.Dry Operating Mass includes the unusable fuel, whereas Operating Mass does not
Explanation: Dry Operating Mass (DOM) is the total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation, including crew, crew baggage, catering, and fluids, but excluding usable fuel and traffic load. Operating Mass (OM) is defined as the DOM plus the takeoff fuel (fuel required for the flight), but still excluding the traffic load.
10If an aircraft is loaded with fuel in its wing tip tanks and this fuel is burned during flight, how does this affect the wing bending moment and the flight limits?
A.The wing bending moment increases as fuel is consumed, requiring strict adherence to the Maximum Zero Fuel Mass (MZFM)
B.The wing bending moment decreases as fuel is consumed, reducing structural stress on the wing root
C.The wing bending moment remains constant because the fuel is stored inside the wing structures
D.The wing bending moment increases initially and then decreases as fuel is depleted below half tank capacity
Explanation: Fuel loaded in the wings provides a downward weight force that opposes and relieves the upward aerodynamic lift force during flight. As wing fuel is consumed, this relieving bending moment is reduced, increasing the upward bending stress at the wing root. This is why the structural limit of Maximum Zero Fuel Mass (MZFM) must be strictly respected.

About the CPL Flight Performance and Planning Exam

The Civil Aviation Authority of Sri Lanka (CAASL) Commercial Pilot License (CPL) Flight Performance and Planning exam is a core theoretical exam for aspiring commercial pilots. It assesses candidates on the critical mathematical and operational aspects of flight operations, combining three key areas: Mass and Balance, Aircraft Performance, and Flight Planning & Monitoring. Aspiring pilots must show proficiency in calculating payload margins, center of gravity limits, take-off and landing distances under variable atmospheric conditions, and en-route fuel planning including Point of Safe Return (PSR) and Critical Point (CP) determinations. The exam is administered via a computer-based testing format at the CAASL Examination Center located in Katunayake. Booking the exam requires registration through the CAASL licensing portal and payment of the LKR 2,000 fee. Candidates are allowed to use standard navigation flight computers (such as the E6B or CRP-5) and reference manuals (CAP 696/697/698 or equivalent) during the exam. To succeed, candidates should practice density altitude calculations, weight shift formulas, chart scaling, wind correction angles, and standard fuel monitoring logs. Thorough preparation involves working through EASA-aligned questions and mastering flight planning forms and graphs.

Assessment

60 multiple-choice questions

Time Limit

3 hours and 15 minutes

Passing Score

75%

Exam Fee

LKR 2,000 (Civil Aviation Authority of Sri Lanka (CAASL) Examination Center)

CPL Flight Performance and Planning Exam Content Outline

30%

Mass and Balance

Calculations of BEM, DOM, traffic loads, floor loading limits, CG shifts, stabilizer trim settings, and % MAC.

35%

Aircraft Performance

Takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, and landing calculations under Performance Class A and Class B regulations, wind component math, and dynamic hydroplaning speeds.

35%

Flight Planning and Monitoring

Fuel planning (contingency, alternate, and final reserve), Point of Safe Return (PSR), Critical Point (CP), altimeter settings (QNH, QFE, QNE), 1-in-60 rule, and ICAO ATC flight plans.

How to Pass the CPL Flight Performance and Planning Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 75%
  • Assessment: 60 multiple-choice questions
  • Time limit: 3 hours and 15 minutes
  • Exam fee: LKR 2,000

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

CPL Flight Performance and Planning Study Tips from Top Performers

1Master the weight shift formula: Weight Shifted / Total Mass = CG Change / Distance Shifted.
2Understand the three critical constraints for traffic load: MTOM, MLM, and MZFM. The lowest limits the payload.
3Memorize the formulas for PNR/PSR and Critical Point (CP), and practice calculations under variable wind conditions.
4Learn the difference between Class A and Class B performance requirements, including dry vs. wet runway screen heights.
5Practice reading weather charts (SIGWX, METAR, TAF) and filing standard ICAO flight plan codes (Item 8, 10, 15, and 18).

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the fee for the CAASL CPL Flight Performance and Planning exam?

The fee for the exam is LKR 2,000, payable during the registration process on the CAASL licensing portal.

Where is the CAASL theory examination conducted?

The exam is conducted as a computer-based test at the official Civil Aviation Authority of Sri Lanka (CAASL) Examination Center in Katunayake, near the airport.

What reference materials are permitted during the exam?

Candidates are permitted to use a standard mechanical flight computer (e.g., CRP-5, CRP-1, or E6B), a non-programmable calculator, and official performance charts/reference books (such as CAP 696/697/698) provided at the test center.

How long is the exam and how many questions are there?

The official exam consists of 60 multiple-choice questions and has a time limit of 3 hours and 15 minutes.

What is the passing score for the CAASL CPL exams?

The passing score is 75%. Candidates must achieve this score on each individual subject exam to qualify for the commercial license.