100+ Free PGIMER Nursing Officer Practice Questions

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: PGIMER Nursing Officer Exam

100

Total Questions

PGIMER CBT Pattern

100 min

Time Limit

PGIMER Chandigarh

-0.25

Negative Marking

Incorrect Answers

40%

Qualifying Score

General/EWS Category

₹1500

Application Fee

General/OBC/EWS

50 Beds

GNM Experience

Hospital Requirement

The PGIMER Nursing Officer recruitment exam is a highly competitive, computer-based test (CBT) administered by PGIMER, Chandigarh. The exam consists of 100 multiple-choice questions with a time limit of 100 minutes. Each correct answer awards 1 mark, while incorrect answers carry a negative marking penalty of -0.25. The minimum qualifying marks are 40% for General/EWS and 35% for SC/ST/OBC, though final selection depends on merit ranking against vacancies. Eligibility requires B.Sc. Nursing or a GNM diploma with 2 years of experience in a 50+ bed hospital, along with State/Indian Nursing Council registration. The registration fee is ₹1,500 for General/OBC/EWS and ₹800 for SC/ST.

Sample PGIMER Nursing Officer Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your PGIMER Nursing Officer exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Which of the following is the most appropriate initial nursing intervention for a patient presenting with an acute myocardial infarction?

A.Administer oxygen therapy via nasal cannula as prescribed

B.Encourage the patient to perform deep breathing exercises

C.Assist the patient to ambulate to promote circulation

D.Place the patient in a prone position to optimize lung expansion

Explanation: Administering oxygen is a crucial initial intervention for myocardial infarction to increase oxygen supply to the ischemic myocardium and minimize cellular damage. Placing the patient in semi-Fowler's position is preferred, and activity/ambulation should be restricted immediately to minimize myocardial oxygen demand.

2Which route is preferred for the administration of the Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) vaccine to a newborn?

A.Intramuscular

B.Intradermal

C.Subcutaneous

D.Oral

Explanation: The BCG vaccine is officially administered via the intradermal route. The standard site is the left upper arm. Administering it via other routes can cause local complications such as abscesses or inadequate immune response.

3What is the primary pharmacological action of lactulose when administered to a patient with liver cirrhosis and hepatic encephalopathy?

A.Directly neutralizing ammonia in the bloodstream

B.Regenerating hepatocytes to improve liver metabolism

C.Promoting the excretion of ammonia through stools

D.Inhibiting the growth of viral particles in the liver

Explanation: Lactulose is a disaccharide that is broken down by colonic bacteria into organic acids. This acidifies the colon contents, converting ammonia (NH3) into ammonium (NH4+), which is non-absorbable and excreted in stools. It also acts as an osmotic laxative, facilitating rapid clearing of nitrogenous wastes.

4Which of the following describes the correct method for calculating the Expected Date of Delivery (EDD) using Naegele's rule?

A.Add 10 days to the last day of the last menstrual period and subtract 3 months

B.Add 7 days to the last day of the last menstrual period, add 9 months, and add 1 year

C.Subtract 7 days from the first day of the last menstrual period and add 9 months

D.Add 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period, subtract 3 months, and add 1 year

Explanation: Naegele's rule calculates the Expected Date of Delivery (EDD) by taking the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP), adding 7 days, subtracting 3 months, and adding 1 year.

5During CPR in adults, what is the recommended ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths for a single healthcare provider?

A.30 compressions to 2 breaths

B.15 compressions to 2 breaths

C.30 compressions to 5 breaths

D.15 compressions to 1 breath

Explanation: According to the standard Basic Life Support (BLS) guidelines for cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio for adults is 30 compressions to 2 breaths, regardless of whether there is one or two rescuers.

6Which clinical finding is considered the hallmark sign of a child presenting with pyloric stenosis?

A.Currant jelly-like stools containing blood and mucus

B.Projectile vomiting of non-bilious fluid

C.Abdominal distention with generalized tenderness

D.Chronic diarrhea leading to severe wasting

Explanation: Pyloric stenosis involves hypertrophy of the pyloric sphincter, leading to gastric outlet obstruction. The classic clinical manifestation is projectile, non-bilious vomiting shortly after feeding, typically occurring in infants between 2 and 8 weeks of age.

7Under the Bio-Medical Waste Management Rules in India, which color-coded container is designated for the disposal of human anatomical waste and placenta?

A.Red bag

B.Blue card box

C.Yellow bag

D.Black cardboard box

Explanation: Under the Indian Bio-Medical Waste Management guidelines, yellow bags are used for human anatomical waste, animal waste, soiled waste, microbiology waste, and discarded medicines. Red bags are for recyclable contaminated plastics.

8What is the primary action of a nurse when a patient on heparin infusion starts bleeding from the gums and has hematuria, and the prescriber orders the immediate administration of the antidote?

A.Administer Vitamin K

B.Administer Deferoxamine

C.Administer Calcium gluconate

D.Administer Protamine sulfate

Explanation: Protamine sulfate is the specific antidote used to reverse the anticoagulant effects of heparin. It works by binding to heparin to form a stable, inactive salt complex.

9What is the recommended temperature and duration for sterilizing surgical instruments using an autoclave under standard conditions?

A.121 degrees Celsius at 15 lbs pressure for 15-20 minutes

B.100 degrees Celsius at 10 lbs pressure for 30 minutes

C.140 degrees Celsius at 20 lbs pressure for 5 minutes

D.115 degrees Celsius at 5 lbs pressure for 45 minutes

Explanation: Standard autoclaving guidelines for steam sterilization require a temperature of 121 degrees Celsius (250 degrees Fahrenheit) at 15 pounds per square inch (psi) of pressure for a minimum of 15 to 20 minutes to ensure all vegetative bacteria and spores are destroyed.

10Which of the following is defined as the difference between the apical heart rate and the radial pulse rate, indicating poor peripheral perfusion?

A.Pulse pressure

B.Pulse deficit

C.Dicrotic notch

D.Cardiac index

Explanation: A pulse deficit occurs when there is a difference between the apical heart rate (heard at the apex of the heart) and the radial pulse rate (felt at the wrist). It indicates that some cardiac contractions are too weak to produce a palpable peripheral pulse wave.

About the PGIMER Nursing Officer Exam

Recruitment exam for permanent Nursing Officer roles at PGIMER Chandigarh. Features a 100-minute Computer Based Test (CBT) covering clinical nursing subjects with a negative marking of 0.25.

Questions

100 scored questions

Time Limit

1 hour 40 minutes

Passing Score

40% (General/EWS) / 35% (SC/ST/OBC)

Exam Fee

₹1500 (PGIMER)

PGIMER Nursing Officer Exam Content Outline

25%

Medical-Surgical Nursing

Anatomy, physiology, and nursing management of adult acute and chronic illnesses

20%

Nursing Foundations

Fundamentals of nursing, patient safety, infection control, first aid, and ethics

15%

Obstetrics and Gynecological Nursing

Antenatal, intranatal, and postnatal care, complications of pregnancy, and gynecology

10%

Child Health Nursing (Pediatrics)

Growth and development milestones, pediatric disorders, and neonatology

10%

Mental Health Nursing (Psychiatric)

Therapeutic communication, psychiatric disorders, treatments, and pharmacology

10%

Community Health Nursing

Epidemiology, family planning, communicable diseases, and Indian healthcare delivery systems

Applied Sciences

Applied Pharmacology, Nutrition, Microbiology, Biochemistry, and Genetics

Nursing Research and Management

Research methodology, nursing administration, quality management, and leadership

How to Pass the PGIMER Nursing Officer Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: 40% (General/EWS) / 35% (SC/ST/OBC)
Exam length: 100 questions
Time limit: 1 hour 40 minutes
Exam fee: ₹1500

Keys to Passing

Complete 500+ practice questions
Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
Focus on highest-weighted sections
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

PGIMER Nursing Officer Study Tips from Top Performers

1Dedicate study time proportionally to exam weights: Focus on Medical-Surgical Nursing, Nursing Foundations, and OBG (accounting for 60% of the marks).

2Practice managing your time: 100 questions in 100 minutes means you have exactly 1 minute per question. Practice with timed mock tests.

3Be cautious of negative marking: Avoid wild guessing, as 0.25 marks are deducted for every wrong answer. Only answer if you can logically eliminate options.

4Review Indian clinical regulations: Learn the Bio-Medical Waste Management Rules, vaccination schedules, and structural layouts of primary healthcare systems (PHC/CHC).

5Use our mock question bank: Solve all 100 practice questions to assess your clinical knowledge and read the detailed correct and incorrect explanations.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the exam pattern for PGIMER Nursing Officer?

The PGIMER Nursing Officer recruitment exam is an online Computer-Based Test (CBT) consisting of 100 multiple-choice questions. The total duration is 100 minutes (1 hour and 40 minutes). There is a negative marking of 0.25 marks for every incorrect answer.

What are the eligibility criteria for PGIMER Nursing Officer?

Candidates must have either a B.Sc. (Nursing) / Post Basic B.Sc. (Nursing) from a recognized university OR a General Nursing and Midwifery (GNM) diploma with a minimum of 2 years of work experience in a hospital with at least 50 beds. All candidates must be registered with the State or Indian Nursing Council, and the age limit is 18 to 35 years.

Is there negative marking in the PGIMER Nursing Officer exam?

Yes, there is negative marking in the exam. For each correct answer, you receive 1 mark, while 0.25 marks are deducted for every incorrect answer. Unanswered questions do not result in any penalty.

What is the application fee for the PGIMER Nursing Officer recruitment?

The application fee is ₹1,500 for General, OBC, and EWS candidates, and ₹800 for SC and ST candidates. Persons with Benchmark Disabilities (PwBD) are fully exempt from paying the application fee.

What are the passing or qualifying marks for the written exam?

The minimum qualifying cut-off score in the CBT is 40% for General/EWS candidates and 35% for SC, ST, and OBC candidates. However, qualifying only makes you eligible for document verification; final selection is based on the merit list.

Which subjects are covered in the PGIMER Nursing Officer syllabus?

The syllabus covers the entire GNM and B.Sc. Nursing curriculum, including Medical-Surgical Nursing, Nursing Foundations, Obstetrics and Gynecological Nursing, Child Health (Pediatrics), Mental Health (Psychiatry), Community Health Nursing, Applied Sciences (Pharmacology, Nutrition, Microbiology), and basic Nursing Research and Management.

100+ Free PGIMER Nursing Officer Practice Questions

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