100+ Free IIT JAM Biotechnology Practice Questions

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Which vaccine type contains live but attenuated pathogens that can replicate without causing disease in healthy individuals?

Subunit vaccine

Live attenuated vaccine

Toxoid vaccine

Inactivated vaccine

to track

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: IIT JAM Biotechnology Exam

60 questions / 100 marks

Composition: 30 MCQ + 10 MSQ + 20 NAT

JAM 2026 Information Brochure, IIT Bombay

180 minutes

Single 3-hour computer-based session

jam2026.iitb.ac.in

INR 1800

Application fee (general category, single paper)

JAM 2026 Information Brochure

-1/3 (or -2/3)

Negative marking on MCQs (none on MSQ or NAT)

JAM Marking Scheme

100

Free practice questions here

OpenExamPrep

JAM BT is a 180-minute CBT with 60 questions (30 MCQ + 10 MSQ + 20 NAT) totaling 100 marks. Negative marking on MCQs only. Conducted by IIT Bombay for JAM 2026; gateway to IIT/IISc M.Sc Biotechnology seats.

Sample IIT JAM Biotechnology Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your IIT JAM Biotechnology exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Which organelle is the primary site of ATP synthesis via oxidative phosphorylation in eukaryotic cells?

A.Mitochondrion

B.Rough endoplasmic reticulum

C.Golgi apparatus

D.Peroxisome

Explanation: Mitochondria host the electron transport chain and ATP synthase on the inner membrane, where oxidative phosphorylation couples NADH/FADH2 oxidation to ATP synthesis. The proton motive force drives ATP production via chemiosmosis as described by Mitchell's hypothesis.

2During which phase of the cell cycle is DNA replicated?

A.G1 phase

B.S phase

C.G2 phase

D.M phase

Explanation: DNA replication (synthesis) occurs in the S phase of interphase, doubling the chromosomal DNA content from 2C to 4C. G1 and G2 are growth and checkpoint phases, while M phase is mitosis.

3What is the approximate pH at which the carboxyl group of glycine (pKa1 ~ 2.34) is half-ionized?

A.1.0

B.2.34

C.7.0

D.9.6

Explanation: By the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, when pH equals pKa, the protonated and deprotonated forms are present in equal amounts — i.e., the group is exactly half-ionized. For glycine's alpha-carboxyl group, this occurs at pH 2.34.

4In a dihybrid cross between two heterozygotes (AaBb x AaBb) with independent assortment, what is the expected phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation?

A.3 : 1

B.1 : 2 : 1

C.9 : 3 : 3 : 1

D.1 : 1 : 1 : 1

Explanation: Mendel's law of independent assortment predicts a 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio for an F2 dihybrid cross with complete dominance at both loci. The ratio represents 9 dominant-dominant, 3 dominant-recessive, 3 recessive-dominant, and 1 double-recessive offspring.

5Which enzyme synthesizes RNA using a DNA template during transcription in prokaryotes?

A.DNA polymerase III

B.RNA polymerase

C.Reverse transcriptase

D.Primase

Explanation: Prokaryotic RNA polymerase (a multi-subunit enzyme with sigma factor for promoter recognition) transcribes DNA into RNA by reading the template strand 3' to 5' and synthesizing RNA 5' to 3'. E. coli has a single RNA polymerase for all RNA classes.

6Which codon is the universal start codon in eukaryotic translation?

A.UAA

B.AUG

C.UGA

D.UAG

Explanation: AUG codes for methionine and serves as the start codon for translation in eukaryotes (the initiator tRNA carries Met). The Kozak sequence around AUG enhances recognition by the ribosomal initiation complex.

7Which of the following best describes the lac operon in E. coli when lactose is present and glucose is absent?

A.Repressor bound to operator, no transcription

B.Repressor inactive, CAP-cAMP bound, high transcription

C.Repressor inactive, CAP-cAMP unbound, low transcription

D.Repressor active, CAP-cAMP bound, intermediate transcription

Explanation: Lactose (via allolactose) inactivates the LacI repressor, freeing the operator. With glucose absent, cAMP levels rise; CAP-cAMP binds upstream of the promoter and recruits RNA polymerase, maximizing transcription of lacZYA. This dual control is classic positive plus negative regulation.

8Which evolutionary mechanism is the primary source of new genetic variation in a population?

A.Natural selection

B.Genetic drift

C.Mutation

D.Gene flow

Explanation: Mutation introduces new alleles into a population's gene pool; without mutation, no novel variation can arise. Other mechanisms (selection, drift, gene flow) act on existing variation but cannot create it de novo.

9Two genes on the same chromosome show 12% recombination frequency. What is the map distance between them?

A.0.12 cM

B.1.2 cM

C.12 cM

D.120 cM

Explanation: By definition, 1% recombination frequency equals 1 centimorgan (cM). Thus 12% recombination corresponds to 12 cM map distance. This linear relationship holds for distances under ~20 cM where double crossovers are rare.

10In glycolysis, the conversion of glucose to pyruvate yields a net production of how many ATP molecules per glucose?

A.2

B.4

C.6

D.36

Explanation: Glycolysis consumes 2 ATP in the priming phase (hexokinase and phosphofructokinase steps) and generates 4 ATP in the payoff phase (phosphoglycerate kinase and pyruvate kinase), for a net gain of 2 ATP per glucose. Additionally, 2 NADH are produced.

About the IIT JAM Biotechnology Exam

IIT JAM Biotechnology (BT) is one of seven test papers under the Joint Admission Test for Masters, the all-India gateway for admission to M.Sc, joint M.Sc-PhD, and other postgraduate science programs at IITs, IISc, NITs, IISERs, and CFTIs. JAM 2026 is organized by IIT Bombay. The BT paper is multi-disciplinary, drawing on Biology (cell biology, biochemistry, genetics, molecular biology, evolution, ecology), Microbial-Plant-Animal Biotechnology, Biotechniques, Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics at the 10+2+3 (undergraduate) level. The 3-hour computer-based test has 60 questions (30 MCQ + 10 MSQ + 20 NAT) for 100 marks, with negative marking only on MCQs (+1/-1/3 for 1-mark; +2/-2/3 for 2-mark).

Questions

100 scored questions

Time Limit

180 minutes (3 hours)

Passing Score

No fixed pass; rank-based admission, typically top ~5-10% required for IIT M.Sc/joint M.Sc-PhD seats

Exam Fee

INR 900 (single paper, female/SC/ST/PwD); INR 1800 (single paper, others) (Indian Institute of Technology Bombay (organizing IIT for JAM 2026, rotating yearly among IITs))

IIT JAM Biotechnology Exam Content Outline

~35%

General Biology

Cell biology (organelles, cycle, division), biochemistry (biomolecules, enzymes, metabolism), genetics (Mendelian, linkage, mapping), molecular biology (DNA replication, transcription, translation, gene regulation), evolution and ecology

~20%

Microbial, Plant and Animal Biotechnology

Microbiology (bacterial structure, growth, fermentation), plant biology (anatomy, physiology, tissue culture, photosynthesis, hormones), animal biology (anatomy, physiology, immunology, vaccines)

~15%

Biotechniques

Biochemical and microscopy techniques (pH, buffers, centrifugation, light and electron microscopy), molecular biology techniques (PCR, gel electrophoresis, blotting, sequencing, restriction digestion), computational biology (BLAST, NCBI, GenBank), spectroscopy (UV-Vis, IR, NMR, MS)

~15%

Chemistry

Atomic structure, chemical bonding and hybridization, thermodynamics, chemical and ionic equilibria, electrochemistry, kinetics, organic functional groups and named reactions, basic inorganic and transition metals

~7%

Mathematics

10+2 level algebra and quadratic equations, trigonometry, single-variable calculus (differentiation, integration), coordinate geometry, simple first-order ODEs, basic probability and statistics

~8%

Physics

10+2 level mechanics (kinematics, Newton's laws), thermodynamics (first law), waves and optics (lenses, wave equation, speed of light), electromagnetism (Coulomb's law, Ohm's law), modern physics (photoelectric effect)

How to Pass the IIT JAM Biotechnology Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: No fixed pass; rank-based admission, typically top ~5-10% required for IIT M.Sc/joint M.Sc-PhD seats
Exam length: 100 questions
Time limit: 180 minutes (3 hours)
Exam fee: INR 900 (single paper, female/SC/ST/PwD); INR 1800 (single paper, others)

Keys to Passing

Complete 500+ practice questions
Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
Focus on highest-weighted sections
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

IIT JAM Biotechnology Study Tips from Top Performers

1Build the General Biology base first — it carries ~35 marks and rewards consistent NCERT-plus-Lehninger-style reading; this is also the highest-yield section per hour

2Practice the chemistry, math, and physics sections at the 10+2 level using NCERT XI-XII textbooks; do not over-prepare these — they are 30 marks combined but only need solid basics

3Solve at least 10-15 previous-year JAM BT papers under timed (3-hour) conditions; the question style and difficulty are very consistent year to year

4For NAT (numerical answer) questions, use the on-screen virtual calculator efficiently and practice unit conversions — these have NO negative marking so attempt all of them

5Master one biotechniques topic per week (PCR, blotting, electrophoresis, microscopy, spectroscopy) — these are recurring favorites and high-yield because they cross with chemistry

6On exam day, attempt MSQs only when sure of ALL correct options — there is no partial credit, and a single wrong selection invalidates the entire question

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the IIT JAM Biotechnology exam pattern in 2026?

JAM BT 2026 is a 3-hour computer-based test with 60 questions for 100 marks: 30 multiple-choice questions (MCQ), 10 multiple-select questions (MSQ), and 20 numerical answer type (NAT) questions. Each section mixes 1-mark and 2-mark items. The test is conducted in a single session by IIT Bombay (organizing IIT for JAM 2026).

What is the marking scheme for JAM BT?

MCQs have negative marking: 1-mark MCQs award +1 for correct and -1/3 for incorrect; 2-mark MCQs award +2 for correct and -2/3 for incorrect. MSQ and NAT questions carry no negative marking. Unanswered questions get 0 marks. There are no partial marks on MSQs — all correct options must be selected.

What is the JAM Biotechnology syllabus?

The official JAM 2026 BT syllabus covers six sections: (1) General Biology (cell biology, biochemistry, genetics, molecular biology, evolution, ecology), (2) Microbial, Plant and Animal Biotechnology, (3) Biotechniques (microscopy, blotting, PCR, sequencing, computational biology, spectroscopy), (4) Chemistry (atomic structure, bonding, thermodynamics, kinetics, organic), (5) Mathematics (10+2 level), and (6) Physics (10+2 level). Full syllabus PDF is on jam2026.iitb.ac.in.

What is the IIT JAM BT exam fee for 2026?

For one test paper, the fee is INR 900 for female candidates and SC/ST/PwD candidates, and INR 1800 for all others. For two test papers, the fees are INR 1250 and INR 2500 respectively. Fees are paid online through the JOAPS portal during application.

Which institutes accept JAM BT scores?

JAM BT scores are accepted for M.Sc, M.Sc-PhD dual degree, and other postgraduate programs at the IITs (e.g., IIT Bombay, Delhi, Madras, Roorkee, Kharagpur), IISc Bangalore, NITs (through CCMN), IISERs, and CFTIs. Each institute publishes its cutoffs and seat matrix during the admission round following JAM results.

What rank do I need to get into an IIT M.Sc Biotechnology program?

Cutoff ranks vary by IIT and category, but typically a top 100-300 All India Rank (AIR) in BT is needed for the more sought-after IIT M.Sc Biotechnology programs (IIT Bombay, Madras, Roorkee). Less-competitive IITs and NITs admit candidates with ranks up to ~600-800 in general category. Reserved-category cutoffs are higher (numerically larger rank).

When is JAM 2026 held and when are results declared?

JAM 2026 is scheduled for February 2026 (typically the second Sunday) in two sessions per day. The application window runs from early September to mid-October 2025. Admit cards release in early January 2026. Results are typically declared in mid-to-late March 2026, followed by the admission portal opening in April.