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Key Facts: IBPS RRB IT Officer Exam

240 Q

Total questions in the online single exam

IBPS RRB Official Information Handout

150 min

Composite time duration to complete the exam

IBPS RRB Official Examination Guidelines

50%

Minimum graduation marks required in ECE/CS/IT

IBPS RRB Scale II Eligibility Criteria

1 Year

Mandatory post-qualification relevant IT work experience

IBPS RRB Scale II Specialist Officer Criteria

₹850

Application fee for General / OBC / EWS candidates

IBPS RRB Notification Fee Details

IBPS RRB Scale II IT Officer: 240 Qs, 150 mins, 200 marks, 0.25 penalty. Bachelor's in CS/IT/ECE with 50% & 1 year IT work experience required. Exam fee ₹850/₹175. Online CBT + Interview.

Sample IBPS RRB IT Officer Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the IBPS RRB IT Officer exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A relation R(A, B, C, D, E) is defined with the functional dependencies F = {A -> B, BC -> D, D -> A, D -> E}. Determine the highest normal form of relation R.
A.1NF
B.2NF
C.3NF
D.BCNF
Explanation: The candidate keys are AC and CD (both closures cover all attributes A, B, C, D, E), so the prime attributes are A, C, D and the non-prime attributes are B and E. A partial dependency exists because A -> B has A, a proper subset of candidate key AC, determining the non-prime attribute B. A partial dependency of a non-prime attribute on part of a candidate key violates 2NF. Since the relation fails 2NF, the highest normal form it satisfies is 1NF.
2A relation R(A, B, C, D) has candidate key A. The functional dependency A -> B, B -> C, and C -> D exist. Which of the following normal form violations and properties apply?
A.The relation is in 2NF but violates 3NF due to transitive dependency
B.The relation is in 3NF but violates BCNF
C.The relation violates 2NF due to partial dependency
D.The relation is in BCNF
Explanation: Since A is the candidate key, all attributes are functionally determined by A. There are no proper subsets of the candidate key A, so partial dependencies are impossible, which means the relation is automatically in 2NF. However, we have A -> B, B -> C, and C -> D. Since B and C are not candidate keys, C -> D is a transitive dependency of a non-prime attribute D on A, which violates 3NF.
3Which of the following relational algebra expressions represents the division operation (R ÷ S) where R has schema (A, B) and S has schema (B)?
A.π_A(R) - π_A((π_A(R) × S) - R)
B.π_A(R) - π_A(R × S)
C.π_A(R) ∩ π_B(S)
D.π_A(R - S)
Explanation: The division operator R ÷ S finds all tuples in R(A) that are associated with all tuples in S(B). It is defined in terms of basic relational algebra operations as: π_A(R) - π_A((π_A(R) × S) - R). The term (π_A(R) × S) - R represents the combinations of A and B that are theoretically possible but do not actually exist in R, and projecting this onto A gives the values of A that do not pair with all B values. Subtracting this from π_A(R) leaves only the values of A that pair with every value of B in S.
4Consider a schedule S with transactions T1 and T2: S = r1(X); r2(Y); w1(X); r1(Y); w2(Y); w1(Y). Which of the following is true about S?
A.S is conflict serializable
B.S is not conflict serializable
C.S contains a write-write conflict but is view serializable
D.S is conflict-free
Explanation: To check conflict serializability, we construct a precedence graph. A conflict occurs when two operations belong to different transactions, operate on the same data item, and at least one is a write. Let's find conflicting operations: 1) r1(Y) and w2(Y) => T1 -> T2. 2) r2(Y) and w1(Y) => T2 -> T1. Since we have both T1 -> T2 and T2 -> T1, there is a cycle in the precedence graph. Therefore, the schedule is not conflict serializable.
5Under the Strict Two-Phase Locking (Strict 2PL) protocol, which of the following rules must be followed by a transaction?
A.It must release all locks only at the end of the transaction
B.It must release all exclusive (write) locks only after the transaction commits or aborts
C.It must acquire all locks before releasing any locks, and release shared locks after commit
D.It must release shared locks before acquiring exclusive locks
Explanation: Strict 2PL requires that a transaction must release all its exclusive (write) locks only after the transaction terminates (either commits or aborts). Shared (read) locks can be released during the shrinking phase before commit. Rigorous 2PL, on the other hand, requires that all locks (both shared and exclusive) be held until the transaction terminates.
6A B+ tree index is built on a key size of 15 bytes, block size of 512 bytes, data pointers of 8 bytes, and block pointers of 10 bytes. What is the maximum order (number of block pointers) of a non-leaf node in this B+ tree?
A.20
B.21
C.22
D.23
Explanation: For a non-leaf node in a B+ tree of order p, there are at most p block pointers and (p - 1) keys. The formula for the size of a non-leaf node is: p * (block pointer size) + (p - 1) * (key size) <= block size. Substituting the values: p * 10 + (p - 1) * 15 <= 512 => 10p + 15p - 15 <= 512 => 25p <= 527 => p <= 21.08. Thus, the maximum order p is 21.
7Consider the SQL query: SELECT DeptName, COUNT(EmpID) FROM Employee GROUP BY DeptName HAVING COUNT(EmpID) > 5. Which of the following is correct regarding the execution of this query?
A.The HAVING clause filters rows before they are grouped
B.The HAVING clause filters groups after the GROUP BY clause is executed
C.HAVING can be used interchangeably with WHERE in this query
D.The query will result in a syntax error because aggregate functions cannot be used in HAVING
Explanation: The GROUP BY clause groups the rows based on the DeptName attribute. The HAVING clause is then applied to filter these aggregated groups (specifically, keeping only those groups with more than 5 employees). Unlike WHERE, which filters individual records before grouping, HAVING operates on aggregated groups.
8In a database management system, which transaction property ensures that if a system crash occurs, the changes made by committed transactions are not lost?
A.Atomicity
B.Consistency
C.Isolation
D.Durability
Explanation: Durability guarantees that once a transaction has committed, its updates survive even in the event of a subsequent system crash or power loss. This is typically implemented using non-volatile storage and techniques like Write-Ahead Logging (WAL).
9Which of the following SQL joins will return all rows from the left table, even if there are no matching rows in the right table?
A.INNER JOIN
B.RIGHT OUTER JOIN
C.LEFT OUTER JOIN
D.FULL OUTER JOIN
Explanation: A LEFT OUTER JOIN returns all records from the left table (table1), along with the matched records from the right table (table2). If no match is found, NULL values are returned for the columns of the right table.
10Using Log-Based Recovery with Immediate Update, how does the Recovery Manager determine what to do with active transactions during a system crash?
A.It REDOs all active transactions and UNDOs committed ones
B.It UNDOs all active transactions and REDOs all committed transactions since the last checkpoint
C.It ignores all active transactions and REDOs only committed transactions
D.It UNDOs all transactions that were active at the checkpoint
Explanation: In immediate update recovery, changes are written to the disk immediately. Upon a crash, the recovery manager scans the log: transactions that have both a START and a COMMIT log record must be REDONE to ensure durability. Transactions that have a START but NO COMMIT/ABORT log record were active during the crash and must be UNDONE (rolled back) to ensure atomicity.

About the IBPS RRB IT Officer Exam

The IBPS RRB IT Officer Scale II exam is a specialized recruitment examination for recruiting Information Technology Specialist Officers in Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) across India. It evaluates candidates across 6 sections, with Professional Knowledge representing the technical core of computer science and IT application. This practice bank provides 100 exam-mode questions simulating the Professional Knowledge section, featuring database engineering, operating systems, data networks, coding structures, system design, and software lifecycle methods.

Exam sponsor: Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS). The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

Single online objective examination of 240 questions for 200 marks, consisting of: Professional Knowledge (40 Q, 40 marks), Reasoning (40 Q, 40 marks), Financial Awareness (40 Q, 40 marks), English/Hindi Language (40 Q, 20 marks), Computer Knowledge (40 Q, 20 marks), and Quantitative Aptitude & DI (40 Q, 40 marks). Duration is 150 minutes composite. Negative marking of 0.25 of the marks assigned to that question.

Time Limit

150 minutes

Passing Score

Subject to sectional and overall cut-off scores determined by IBPS based on category vacancy levels.

Exam / Certification Fees

₹850 for General/OBC/EWS candidates and ₹175 for SC/ST/PwBD candidates

Exam sponsor website

Reported exam pass rate: Not published. Selection is based on the single online exam score (80% weightage) and Personal Interview score (20% weightage). Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Official sources

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

20%

Database Management Systems (DBMS)

RDBMS concepts, ER diagrams, normalization (1NF to BCNF), SQL queries, transactions (ACID properties), concurrency control, and indexing.

15%

Operating Systems (OS)

Process management, CPU scheduling, deadlocks, memory management (paging, segmentation, virtual memory), and file systems.

15%

Data Structures & Algorithms

Arrays, linked lists, stacks, queues, trees (BST, AVL, B-trees), graphs, sorting and searching algorithms, and complexity analysis.

15%

Computer Networks & Security

OSI and TCP/IP models, routing protocols, transport layer protocols (TCP/UDP), network security, firewalls, and cryptography (symmetric/asymmetric keys).

15%

OOPs & Programming (C/C++/Java)

Object-oriented programming concepts (inheritance, polymorphism, encapsulation, abstraction), syntax and behavior in C, C++, and Java.

10%

Computer Organization & Architecture (COA)

Number representation, cache memory, pipelining, addressing modes, I/O organization, and CPU organization.

10%

Web Tech, Compiler & Software Engineering

HTML, CSS, XML, JavaScript, basic compiler phases, software development life cycle (SDLC) models (Waterfall, Agile), and testing methods.

Preparing for the IBPS RRB IT Officer Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Subject to sectional and overall cut-off scores determined by IBPS based on category vacancy levels.
  • Assessment: Single online objective examination of 240 questions for 200 marks, consisting of: Professional Knowledge (40 Q, 40 marks), Reasoning (40 Q, 40 marks), Financial Awareness (40 Q, 40 marks), English/Hindi Language (40 Q, 20 marks), Computer Knowledge (40 Q, 20 marks), and Quantitative Aptitude & DI (40 Q, 40 marks). Duration is 150 minutes composite. Negative marking of 0.25 of the marks assigned to that question.
  • Time limit: 150 minutes
  • Exam / certification fees: ₹850 for General/OBC/EWS candidates and ₹175 for SC/ST/PwBD candidates Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

  • Work through all 100 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

IBPS RRB IT Officer: Suggested Study Strategy

1Dedicate special attention to SQL queries (joins, subqueries) and Normalization (especially 3NF and BCNF), as DBMS carries high weightage.
2Solve numerical problems related to OS (CPU scheduling timelines, page fault rates) and Network Subnetting (calculating network address, host ranges).
3Revise basic programming concepts, dry run snippets of C and C++ code, and understand object-oriented concepts like virtual functions and interface implementations.
4For Computer Organization, make sure you understand cache mapping (Direct, Associative) and pipelining hazard types.
5Keep track of standard sorting algorithm complexities (worst-case and best-case runtimes) and tree traversal order outputs.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the qualification and work experience required for IBPS RRB IT Officer Scale II?

Candidates must hold a Bachelor's degree from a recognized university in Electronics, Communication, Computer Science, or Information Technology (or equivalent) with at least 50% marks in aggregate. Additionally, they must have at least 1 year of post-qualification experience in the relevant IT field.

What is the exam pattern and duration for this Scale II post?

It is a single online exam consisting of 240 questions for 200 marks, with a composite time limit of 150 minutes. The sections include Professional Knowledge, Reasoning, Financial Awareness, English/Hindi Language, Computer Knowledge, and Quantitative Aptitude & DI.

Is there sectional timing in the IBPS RRB Scale II exam?

No, there is no sectional time limit. Candidates have a composite time of 150 minutes to navigate and attempt all six sections.

What is the penalty for incorrect answers?

There is a penalty of 0.25 (1/4th) of the marks assigned to that question. For sections where each question carries 1 mark (Professional Knowledge, Reasoning, Financial Awareness, Quantitative Aptitude), the penalty is 0.25 marks. For English/Hindi and Computer Knowledge (where each question is 0.5 marks), the penalty is 0.125 marks.

Does this practice bank cover only Professional Knowledge?

Yes, this practice bank of 100 questions is specifically designed to cover the Technical / Professional Knowledge syllabus of the IT Officer exam, which is the most critical differentiator in qualifying for the interview.