100+ Free ESE ME Prelims Practice Questions

Pass your UPSC Engineering Services Examination — Prelims (Mechanical Engineering: Paper I GS&E + Paper II Mechanical) exam on the first try — instant access, no signup required.

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: ESE ME Prelims Exam

100 + 150 MCQs

Paper I + Paper II question counts (500 marks combined)

UPSC ESE exam pattern

2 h + 3 h

Paper I and Paper II durations

UPSC ESE exam pattern

−1/3 per wrong

Negative marking on assigned question marks

UPSC ESE notification

INR 200

Application fee (with exemptions)

UPSC ESE 2026 notification

40 / 60

Practice split: Paper I GS&E / Paper II Mechanical (of 100 free MCQs)

OpenExamPrep blueprint scaled to prelims marks

ESE Mechanical Prelims totals 250 MCQs / 500 marks: Paper I GS&E (100 Q, 2 h, 200 marks) + Paper II Mechanical (150 Q, 3 h, 300 marks), with −1/3 per wrong answer. Application fee is INR 200 (exemptions for Female/SC/ST/PwBD).

Sample ESE ME Prelims Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your ESE ME Prelims exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Under the National Green Hydrogen Mission, what is India's target for green hydrogen production capacity per annum by the year 2030?

A.At least 1 MMT (Million Metric Tonnes)

B.At least 5 MMT (Million Metric Tonnes)

C.At least 10 MMT (Million Metric Tonnes)

D.At least 20 MMT (Million Metric Tonnes)

Explanation: The National Green Hydrogen Mission of India, launched to make India a global hub for the production, usage, and export of green hydrogen, has set a target of producing at least 5 Million Metric Tonnes (MMT) of green hydrogen per annum by 2030, supported by an associated renewable energy capacity addition of about 125 GW.

2Which city hosted the COP28 United Nations Climate Change Conference in late 2023?

A.Sharm El-Sheikh, Egypt

B.Glasgow, United Kingdom

C.Dubai, United Arab Emirates

D.Baku, Azerbaijan

Explanation: The 28th Conference of the Parties (COP28) to the UNFCCC was held in Dubai, United Arab Emirates, from November 30 to December 13, 2023. It resulted in the historic 'UAE Consensus' calling for transitioning away from fossil fuels.

3The PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan is driven by how many key engines of infrastructure development?

A.5 engines

B.7 engines

C.9 engines

D.12 engines

Explanation: The PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan is driven by 7 engines: Roads, Railways, Airports, Ports, Mass Transport, Waterways, and Logistics Infrastructure. These engines work in unison to move the economy forward in a coordinated and integrated manner.

4What is the primary focus of the Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Hybrid and Electric Vehicles (FAME India) Scheme Phase II?

A.Supporting electrification of public and shared transportation

B.Electrifying agricultural pump sets only

C.Subsidizing private petrol vehicle retrofitting kits

D.Exempting solar cell manufacturing from import duties

Explanation: Phase II of the FAME India Scheme focuses on supporting electrification of public and shared transportation, including electric buses, passenger cars, three-wheelers, and two-wheelers, along with establishing charging infrastructure.

5Which of the following is the primary objective of the Global Biofuels Alliance (GBA) launched at the G20 Summit in New Delhi in 2023?

A.To establish a cartel to fix global ethanol prices

B.To facilitate global biofuels trade, technology sharing, and technical standards development

C.To mandate a 50% blending of ethanol in aviation fuel by 2025

D.To phase out biodiesel research in favor of electric battery technology

Explanation: The Global Biofuels Alliance (GBA) is a multi-stakeholder alliance initiated by India, the US, and Brazil to facilitate global collaboration on biofuels development, trade, standard-setting, and technological assistance.

6For the matrix A = [[4, 2], [2, 7]], what are the eigenvalues?

A.3 and 8

B.2 and 7

C.4 and 7

D.1 and 10

Explanation: The eigenvalues lambda satisfy det(A - lambda*I) = 0. So (4 - lambda)(7 - lambda) - 4 = 0 => lambda^2 - 11*lambda + 24 = 0. Solving the quadratic equation gives lambda = 3 and lambda = 8.

7A fair coin is tossed 5 times. What is the probability of obtaining exactly 2 heads?

A.5/16

B.1/4

C.5/32

D.3/8

Explanation: Using the binomial distribution P(X = k) = nCk * p^k * (1-p)^(n-k). Here n = 5, k = 2, p = 0.5. P(X = 2) = 5C2 * (0.5)^2 * (0.5)^3 = 10 * (1/32) = 10/32 = 5/16.

8What is the general solution to the first-order linear ordinary differential equation: dy/dx + 2y = e^x?

A.y = C * e^(-2x) + (1/3) * e^x

B.y = C * e^(2x) + e^x

C.y = C * e^(-2x) + e^x

D.y = C * e^(2x) + (1/3) * e^x

Explanation: The integrating factor is I.F. = e^(integral of 2 dx) = e^(2x). Multiplying the ODE by I.F. gives d/dx(y * e^(2x)) = e^(3x). Integrating both sides: y * e^(2x) = (1/3) * e^(3x) + C => y = C * e^(-2x) + (1/3) * e^x.

9What is the curl of the position vector field F = x*i + y*j + z*k?

A.0

B.i + j + k

C.3

D.2*(i + j + k)

Explanation: The curl of a vector field is given by the determinant of the curl matrix. For F = x*i + y*j + z*k, Curl(F) = (d/dy(z) - d/dz(y))i + (d/dz(x) - d/dx(z))j + (d/dx(y) - d/dy(x))k = 0i + 0j + 0k = 0.

10Using Simpson's 1/3 rule with a step size of h = 1, what is the approximated value of the integral of x^3 dx from x = 0 to x = 2?

A.4

B.4.5

C.3.5

D.5

Explanation: For Simpson's 1/3 rule, integral of f(x) dx approx (h/3) * [f(x0) + 4*f(x1) + f(x2)]. Here, x0=0, x1=1, x2=2. f(x) = x^3 => f(0)=0, f(1)=1, f(2)=8. Integral approx (1/3) * [0 + 4*(1) + 8] = 12/3 = 4. Note that Simpson's 1/3 rule is exact for polynomials of degree 3 or less, so it matches the exact integral: [x^4/4]_0^2 = 4.

About the ESE ME Prelims Exam

UPSC Engineering Services Examination (ESE/IES) Prelims for Mechanical Engineering combines Paper I (General Studies & Engineering Aptitude — 100 MCQs, 200 marks, 2 hours) with Paper II (Mechanical Engineering — 150 MCQs, 300 marks, 3 hours). Paper I covers current issues, aptitude, engineering mathematics, design/safety, standards & quality, energy & environment, project management, material science, ICT, and ethics. Paper II spans fluid mechanics, thermodynamics, heat transfer, internal combustion engines, refrigeration and air conditioning, turbo machinery, power plant engineering, renewable sources of energy, engineering mechanics, strength of materials, theory of machines, machine design, manufacturing engineering, and industrial and maintenance engineering. Wrong answers incur a penalty of one-third of the marks assigned to that question.

Assessment

Stage I Prelims is two offline OMR objective papers on the same day: Paper I General Studies & Engineering Aptitude (common) and Paper II Mechanical Engineering (discipline). Combined prelims total 500 marks. Qualifiers advance to conventional Mains (600 marks) and Personality Test (200 marks).

Time Limit

Paper I 120 minutes + Paper II 180 minutes (5 hours total)

Passing Score

Category-wise cut-off on combined 500 prelims marks; no fixed percentage published as a universal pass mark

Exam Fee

INR 200 (Female, SC, ST, and PwBD candidates exempt from fee payment) (Union Public Service Commission (UPSC))

ESE ME Prelims Exam Content Outline

40%

Paper I — GS & Engineering Aptitude

Current issues; logical aptitude; engineering mathematics; design/drawing/safety; standards & quality; energy & environment; project management; material science; ICT; engineering ethics

~8%

Fluid Mechanics & Hydraulic Machines

Fluid properties, kinematics, dynamics, boundary layer, pipe flow, turbines, pumps

~10%

Thermodynamics & Heat Transfer

Laws of thermodynamics, entropy, cycles, conduction, convection, radiation, heat exchangers

~8%

IC Engines & RAC

Combustion, engine performance, air standard cycles, vapor compression/absorption, psychrometry

~8%

Power Plant Engineering

Steam/gas turbine plants, compressors, Rankine/Brayton cycles, nuclear plants, boilers

~6%

Renewable Energy Sources

Solar energy, wind energy, biomass conversion, fuel cells, ocean thermal energy

~10%

Engineering Mechanics & Strength of Materials

Static and dynamic analysis, trusses, stress-strain relations, bending, torsion, columns

~8%

Theory of Machines & Vibrations

Planar mechanisms, gears, gear trains, flywheels, governors, single degree-of-freedom vibrations

~8%

Machine Design

Failure theories, fatigue loading, design of shafts, bearings, clutches, brakes, joints

~12%

Manufacturing & Industrial Engineering

Metal casting, forming, welding, machining, non-traditional machining, CNC, metrology, operations research

How to Pass the ESE ME Prelims Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: Category-wise cut-off on combined 500 prelims marks; no fixed percentage published as a universal pass mark
Assessment: Stage I Prelims is two offline OMR objective papers on the same day: Paper I General Studies & Engineering Aptitude (common) and Paper II Mechanical Engineering (discipline). Combined prelims total 500 marks. Qualifiers advance to conventional Mains (600 marks) and Personality Test (200 marks).
Time limit: Paper I 120 minutes + Paper II 180 minutes (5 hours total)
Exam fee: INR 200 (Female, SC, ST, and PwBD candidates exempt from fee payment)

Keys to Passing

Complete 500+ practice questions
Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
Focus on highest-weighted sections
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

ESE ME Prelims Study Tips from Top Performers

1Balance Paper I Engineering Aptitude and Paper II Mechanical — prelims cut-off is on combined 500 marks, not Paper II alone

2Solve UPSC ESE Mechanical previous-year Paper I and Paper II PDFs from upsc.gov.in to match official style and difficulty

3Maintain formula sheets for thermodynamics, heat transfer, and strength of materials; numerical speed matters across 150 Paper II questions

4Practice OMR discipline: blind guesses cost 2/3 mark each — eliminate options before answering

5After prelims, shift to conventional Mains preparation; objective prelims tests breadth, Mains tests depth and descriptive problem-solving

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the UPSC ESE Mechanical Prelims exam pattern?

Prelims has two papers: Paper I (General Studies & Engineering Aptitude) — 100 MCQs, 200 marks, 2 hours; Paper II (Mechanical Engineering) — 150 MCQs, 300 marks, 3 hours. Both are offline OMR objective tests. Total prelims marks: 500.

What is the negative marking in ESE Mechanical Prelims?

For each wrong answer, one-third of the marks assigned to that question is deducted. Paper I and Paper II questions carry 2 marks each, so a wrong answer costs 2/3 mark. Unattempted questions score zero.

What is the ESE 2026 application fee?

As per the UPSC ESE 2026 notification, candidates (except Female, SC, ST, and PwBD who are exempt) pay an application fee of INR 200 through the prescribed online modes.

Does this practice bank cover Paper I or only Mechanical Paper II?

This free bank scales practice to both papers proportionally to prelims marks: about 40 questions on Paper I GS & Engineering Aptitude topics and 60 questions on Paper II Mechanical Engineering syllabus areas (100 total).

What is the syllabus for ESE Mechanical Prelims Paper II?

Paper II covers fluid mechanics; thermodynamics and heat transfer; IC engines and refrigeration & air conditioning; power plant engineering; renewable sources of energy; engineering mechanics; strength of materials; theory of machines; machine design; manufacturing engineering; and industrial and maintenance engineering.

Who is eligible for UPSC ESE Mechanical Engineering?

Candidates need a B.E./B.Tech in Mechanical Engineering (or equivalent) from a recognized university and must be 21-30 years of age on 1 January of the exam year, with relaxations for reserved categories. Medical fitness standards in the UPSC notification also apply.