All Practice Exams

100+ Free ESE ECE Prelims Practice Questions

Pass your UPSC Engineering Services Examination — Prelims (Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering: Paper I GS&E + Paper II ECE) exam on the first try — instant access, no signup required.

✓ No registration✓ No credit card✓ No hidden fees✓ Start practicing immediately
100+ Questions
100% Free

Loading practice questions...

Same family resources

Explore More UPSC Engineering Services Examination (ESE/IES)

Continue into nearby exams from the same family. Each card keeps practice questions, study guides, flashcards, videos, and articles in one place.

2026 Statistics

Key Facts: ESE ECE Prelims Exam

100 + 150 MCQs

Paper I + Paper II question counts (500 marks combined)

UPSC ESE exam pattern

2 h + 3 h

Paper I and Paper II durations

UPSC ESE exam pattern

−1/3 per wrong

Negative marking on assigned question marks

UPSC ESE notification

INR 200

Application fee (with exemptions)

UPSC ESE 2026 notification

40 / 60

Practice split: Paper I GS&E / Paper II ECE (of 100 free MCQs)

OpenExamPrep blueprint scaled to prelims marks

ESE ECE Prelims totals 250 MCQs / 500 marks: Paper I GS&E (100 Q, 2 h, 200 marks) + Paper II ECE (150 Q, 3 h, 300 marks), with −1/3 per wrong answer. Application fee is INR 200 (exemptions for Female/SC/ST/PwBD).

Sample ESE ECE Prelims Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your ESE ECE Prelims exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Under India's National Green Hydrogen Mission, what is the target annual production capacity of green hydrogen to be achieved by the year 2030?
A.1 MMT (Million Metric Tonnes)
B.5 MMT (Million Metric Tonnes)
C.10 MMT (Million Metric Tonnes)
D.20 MMT (Million Metric Tonnes)
Explanation: The National Green Hydrogen Mission targets the development of green hydrogen production capacity of at least 5 MMT per annum by 2030, alongside adding about 125 GW of associated renewable energy capacity.
2The Digital India Act (DIA), proposed to replace the decades-old Information Technology Act 2000, primarily aims to achieve which of the following objectives?
A.Set mandatory hardware manufacturing quotas for Indian semiconductor fabs
B.Establish a comprehensive legal framework for online safety, trust, and accountability in the digital ecosystem
C.Introduce a national network of physical post offices in remote villages
D.Replace the current GST taxation portal with a decentralized blockchain database
Explanation: The proposed Digital India Act (DIA) aims to create a modern regulatory framework to address contemporary digital challenges, ensuring online safety, trust, accountability, consumer protection, and guidelines for emerging tech like AI.
3How many key infrastructural engines (pillars) drive the PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan for multi-modal connectivity?
A.5 engines
B.7 engines
C.9 engines
D.12 engines
Explanation: The PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan is driven by seven key engines: Roads, Railways, Airports, Ports, Mass Transport, Waterways, and Logistics Infrastructure.
4The Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM), which imposes tariffs on carbon-intensive imports to prevent carbon leakage, was introduced by which of the following?
A.The United States Federal Government
B.The European Union
C.The World Trade Organization
D.The Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation
Explanation: The Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) is a policy tool introduced by the European Union (EU) to apply carbon pricing to imports of goods like cement, iron, steel, aluminum, and fertilizers.
5A and B can complete a piece of work in 12 days, B and C in 15 days, and C and A in 20 days. If A, B, and C work together, in how many days will they complete the same work?
A.6 days
B.8 days
C.10 days
D.12 days
Explanation: Let total work = 60 units (LCM of 12, 15, 20). Combined daily work rates: A+B = 5 units, B+C = 4 units, C+A = 3 units. Summing these: 2(A+B+C) = 12 units/day. Thus, A+B+C = 6 units/day. Days taken together = 60 / 6 = 10 days.
6A person travels 10 km due North, turns right and travels 24 km due East. How far is the person from the starting point in a straight line?
A.14 km
B.26 km
C.34 km
D.44 km
Explanation: The movement forms a right-angled triangle. By Pythagoras' theorem: Displacement = sqrt(10^2 + 24^2) = sqrt(100 + 576) = sqrt(676) = 26 km.
7How many distinct permutations can be formed using the letters of the word 'ENGINEER' such that all three 'E' letters are always grouped together?
A.120
B.360
C.720
D.1440
Explanation: Word: ENGINEER (8 letters: E, E, E, N, N, G, I, R). Treating the three 'E's as a single block (EEE), we have 6 entities to arrange: (EEE), N, N, G, I, R. Among these, 'N' repeats twice. The number of permutations is 6! / 2! = 720 / 2 = 360.
8In a certain code language, the word 'SIGNAL' is written as 'TJHOBM'. Using the same encoding scheme, how would the word 'SYSTEM' be written?
A.TZTUFN
B.TZTUDN
C.SZSUFN
D.TYTUFN
Explanation: Each letter in 'SIGNAL' is shifted forward by 1 character in the alphabet (+1): S->T, I->J, G->H, N->O, A->B, L->M. Shifting 'SYSTEM' by +1 yields T, Z, T, U, F, N.
9What are the eigenvalues of the 2x2 matrix A = [[4, 1], [3, 2]]?
A.2 and 4
B.1 and 5
C.3 and 3
D.0 and 6
Explanation: The characteristic equation is det(A - lambda*I) = 0. det([[4-lambda, 1], [3, 2-lambda]]) = (4-lambda)(2-lambda) - 3 = lambda^2 - 6*lambda + 8 - 3 = lambda^2 - 6*lambda + 5 = 0. Factoring gives (lambda - 1)(lambda - 5) = 0, yielding eigenvalues 1 and 5.
10A bag contains 5 red and 3 blue balls. If two balls are drawn at random one after another without replacement, what is the probability that both drawn balls are red?
A.5/14
B.25/64
C.15/56
D.5/16
Explanation: Probability of the first ball being red = 5/8. Since drawing is without replacement, the probability of the second ball being red is 4/7 (four reds remain among seven balls). Combined probability = (5/8) * (4/7) = 20/56 = 5/14.

About the ESE ECE Prelims Exam

UPSC Engineering Services Examination (ESE/IES) Prelims for Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering combines Paper I (General Studies & Engineering Aptitude — 100 MCQs, 200 marks, 2 hours) with Paper II (ECE — 150 MCQs, 300 marks, 3 hours). Paper I covers current issues, aptitude, engineering mathematics, design/safety, standards & quality, energy & environment, project management, material science, ICT, and ethics. Paper II spans basic electronics, networks, analog and digital circuits, control systems, materials and components, physical electronics, signals and systems, measurements, communication systems, electromagnetics, and computer organization. Wrong answers incur a penalty of one-third of the marks assigned to that question.

Assessment

Stage I Prelims is two offline OMR objective papers on the same day: Paper I General Studies & Engineering Aptitude (common) and Paper II Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering (discipline). Combined prelims total 500 marks. Qualifiers advance to conventional Mains (600 marks) and Personality Test (200 marks).

Time Limit

Paper I 120 minutes + Paper II 180 minutes (5 hours total)

Passing Score

Category-wise cut-off on combined 500 prelims marks; no fixed percentage published as a universal pass mark

Exam Fee

INR 200 (Female, SC, ST, and PwBD candidates exempt from fee payment) (Union Public Service Commission (UPSC))

ESE ECE Prelims Exam Content Outline

40%

Paper I — GS & Engineering Aptitude

Current issues; logical aptitude; engineering mathematics; design/drawing/safety; standards & quality; energy & environment; project management; material science; ICT; engineering ethics

~6%

Basic Electronics Engineering

Semiconductors, BJTs, FETs, small signal models, bias stability, amplifiers, and oscillators

~8%

Network Theory

Network theorems, transient response, sinusoidal steady-state, two-port networks, resonance

~8%

Analog & Digital Circuits

Operational amplifiers, feedback, combinational and sequential digital systems, A/D and D/A converters

~8%

Control Systems

Transfer functions, transient and steady-state responses, stability criteria, state variable representation

~4%

Materials & Components

Dielectrics, magnetic materials, superconductors, ceramics, resistors, capacitors, inductors

~4%

Physical Electronics & ICs

Band diagram, carrier transport, p-n junction, MOSFETs, IC fabrication steps

~4%

Signals & Systems

LTI systems, Fourier/Laplace/Z-transforms, convolution, state equations

~4%

Measurements & Instrumentation

Bridges, transducers, digital instruments, CRO, signal conditioning, error analysis

~6%

Communication Systems

Modulation schemes, PCM, digital carrier systems (PSK, QAM), noise performance, information capacity

~4%

Electromagnetics

Maxwell’s equations, wave propagation, transmission lines, waveguides, antennas

~4%

Computer Organization & Microprocessors

CPU architecture, memory hierarchy, 8085 microprocessors, cache, pipelines

How to Pass the ESE ECE Prelims Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Category-wise cut-off on combined 500 prelims marks; no fixed percentage published as a universal pass mark
  • Assessment: Stage I Prelims is two offline OMR objective papers on the same day: Paper I General Studies & Engineering Aptitude (common) and Paper II Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering (discipline). Combined prelims total 500 marks. Qualifiers advance to conventional Mains (600 marks) and Personality Test (200 marks).
  • Time limit: Paper I 120 minutes + Paper II 180 minutes (5 hours total)
  • Exam fee: INR 200 (Female, SC, ST, and PwBD candidates exempt from fee payment)

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

ESE ECE Prelims Study Tips from Top Performers

1Balance Paper I Engineering Aptitude and Paper II ECE — prelims cut-off is on combined 500 marks, not Paper II alone
2Solve UPSC ESE ECE previous-year Paper I and Paper II PDFs from upsc.gov.in to match official style and difficulty
3Maintain formula sheets for networks, communication systems, electromagnetics, and control systems; numerical speed matters across 150 Paper II questions
4Practice OMR discipline: blind guesses cost 2/3 mark each — eliminate options before answering
5After prelims, shift to conventional Mains preparation; objective prelims tests breadth, Mains tests depth and descriptive problem-solving

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the UPSC ESE ECE Prelims exam pattern?

Prelims has two papers: Paper I (General Studies & Engineering Aptitude) — 100 MCQs, 200 marks, 2 hours; Paper II (Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering) — 150 MCQs, 300 marks, 3 hours. Both are offline OMR objective tests. Total prelims marks: 500.

What is the negative marking in ESE ECE Prelims?

For each wrong answer, one-third of the marks assigned to that question is deducted. Paper I and Paper II questions carry 2 marks each, so a wrong answer costs 2/3 mark. Unattempted questions score zero.

What is the ESE 2026 application fee?

As per the UPSC ESE 2026 notification, candidates (except Female, SC, ST, and PwBD who are exempt) pay an application fee of INR 200 through the prescribed online modes.

Does this practice bank cover Paper I or only ECE Paper II?

This free bank scales practice to both papers proportionally to prelims marks: about 40 questions on Paper I GS & Engineering Aptitude topics and 60 questions on Paper II Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering syllabus areas (100 total).

What is the syllabus for ESE ECE Prelims Paper II?

Paper II covers basic electronics engineering, network theory, analog and digital circuits, control systems, materials and components, physical electronics and ICs, signals and systems, measurements and instrumentation, analog and digital communication systems, electromagnetics, and computer organization.

Who is eligible for UPSC ESE Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering?

Candidates need a B.E./B.Tech in Electronics / Telecommunication / Electrical / Electronics & Communication Engineering (or equivalent) from a recognized university and must be 21-30 years of age on 1 January of the exam year, with relaxations for reserved categories.