All Practice Exams

100+ Free BSEH SS Biotechnology Practice Questions

Board of School Education Haryana (BSEH) Senior Secondary Biotechnology (Class 12 — Bio-Technology elective, date-sheet code 871) practice questions are available now; exam metadata is being verified.

✓ No registration✓ No credit card✓ No hidden fees✓ Start practicing immediately
100+ Questions
100% Free

Loading practice questions...

2026 Statistics

Key Facts: BSEH SS Biotechnology Exam

2½ hours

Typical BSEH Senior Secondary Biotechnology theory exam duration

BSEH Class 12 Biotechnology syllabus (code 871)

60+20+20

Theory + practical + internal assessment mark split (grand total 100)

BSEH Class 12 Biotechnology syllabus 2025-26

Code 871

Biotechnology subject code on BSEH Senior Secondary materials

BSEH syllabus / date sheet

English MCQ adaptation

This free local bank is not the official Senior Secondary paper format

OpenExamPrep practice policy

BSEH Senior Secondary Biotechnology is a Class 12 public-exam elective with about 2½ hours of theory (60 marks, date-sheet code 871) plus 20 practical and 20 internal (total 100), covering rDNA, proteins, genomics, and cell culture — not a pure MCQ board paper. This free 2026 bank is an English MCQ study adaptation for CBSE/BSEH-aligned Class 12 Biotechnology concepts.

Sample BSEH SS Biotechnology Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your BSEH SS Biotechnology exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Restriction endonucleases used in rDNA technology typically cut DNA at:
A.Random single-stranded nicks only
B.Specific recognition sequences (restriction sites)
C.Only RNA–DNA hybrids
D.Telomeres exclusively
Explanation: Type II restriction endonucleases recognise short palindromic DNA sequences and cleave within or near those sites, producing sticky or blunt ends useful for cloning.
2Which enzyme seals nicks to join DNA fragments during cloning?
A.DNA ligase
B.DNA polymerase I only
C.Reverse transcriptase
D.Helicase
Explanation: DNA ligase catalyses phosphodiester bond formation between adjacent 5′-phosphate and 3′-OH ends, sealing sticky or blunt-end joins after restriction digestion.
3RFLP analysis distinguishes alleles primarily by:
A.Differences in restriction fragment lengths after digestion
B.Protein isoelectric points only
C.mRNA poly-A tail length
D.Ribosome binding rates
Explanation: Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism detects sequence differences that create or destroy restriction sites (or change fragment sizes), yielding different band patterns after electrophoresis.
4A plasmid cloning vector typically requires all of the following EXCEPT:
A.An origin of replication
B.A selectable marker (e.g. antibiotic resistance)
C.A multiple cloning site
D.A complete eukaryotic centromere
Explanation: Bacterial plasmids need ori, selectable markers, and MCS for inserts; a eukaryotic centromere is not required for standard bacterial plasmid vectors (YACs need centromeres).
5Cosmids are hybrid vectors that combine features of:
A.Plasmids and λ phage cos sites
B.YAC and BAC only
C.Ti plasmid and animal viruses only
D.mRNA and tRNA
Explanation: Cosmids carry plasmid ori/selectable markers plus λ cos sites, allowing packaging of large inserts (~30–45 kb) into phage particles for efficient delivery.
6YACs (yeast artificial chromosomes) are preferred when the insert size needed is:
A.Very large genomic fragments (hundreds of kb)
B.Only short oligonucleotides (<20 bp)
C.Single amino acids
D.Lipid bilayers
Explanation: YACs can maintain megabase-scale inserts in yeast, enabling large-genome cloning that exceeds typical plasmid capacity.
7BAC vectors are based on the F plasmid of E. coli and typically accept inserts of roughly:
A.~100–350 kb
B.Only 5–10 bp
C.Entire eukaryotic chromosomes always
D.RNA genomes exclusively
Explanation: Bacterial artificial chromosomes stably maintain large inserts (order of 100+ kb) at low copy number, useful for genome libraries.
8Introduction of naked DNA into bacterial cells is called:
A.Transformation
B.Transcription
C.Transduction only
D.Translation
Explanation: Transformation is uptake of free DNA by competent bacterial cells. Transfection often refers to eukaryotic cells; transduction uses phage.
9Electroporation introduces DNA into cells by:
A.Brief high-voltage pulses that permeabilise membranes
B.Heating DNA to 100 °C only
C.Digesting the cell wall with trypsin exclusively
D.Blocking all ion channels permanently
Explanation: Electroporation uses electrical pulses to create transient pores in membranes, allowing DNA entry into bacteria, plant protoplasts, or animal cells.
10Biolistics (gene gun) delivers DNA primarily by:
A.High-velocity microprojectiles coated with DNA
B.Only conjugation pili
C.Passive diffusion through nuclear pores without force
D.Antibody-mediated endocytosis only
Explanation: Biolistics accelerates gold/tungsten particles coated with DNA into plant (or other) cells—useful when Agrobacterium methods are difficult.

About the BSEH SS Biotechnology Practice Questions

Verified exam format metadata for Board of School Education Haryana (BSEH) Senior Secondary Biotechnology (Class 12 — Bio-Technology elective, date-sheet code 871) is pending. The practice questions above remain available while official exam length, timing, passing score, fee, and administrator details are reviewed.