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Sample Midwifery Exam Practice Questions
Try these sample questions to test your Midwifery Exam exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.
1In Hong Kong, universal screening for Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is routinely offered to pregnant women at how many weeks of gestation?
A.28 to 30 weeks
B.32 to 34 weeks
C.35 to 37 weeks
D.38 to 40 weeks
Explanation: The Hong Kong Department of Health and Hospital Authority guidelines recommend GBS screening by low vaginal and anorectal swab for all pregnant women at 35 to 37 weeks of gestation, as this timing provides the most accurate prediction of colonization status at the time of delivery.
2A pregnant woman at 26 weeks of gestation undergoes a 75g Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT). According to the WHO diagnostic criteria adopted in Hong Kong, which of the following plasma glucose values is diagnostic of Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM)?
A.Fasting plasma glucose of 4.8 mmol/L
B.1-hour plasma glucose of 9.0 mmol/L
C.2-hour plasma glucose of 8.5 mmol/L
D.Fasting plasma glucose of 5.0 mmol/L
Explanation: According to the WHO (2013) and HKCOG criteria, GDM is diagnosed if one or more of the following plasma glucose values are met: Fasting >= 5.1 mmol/L, 1-hour >= 10.0 mmol/L, or 2-hour >= 8.5 mmol/L. A 2-hour value of 8.5 mmol/L is diagnostic.
3Which of the following is considered a HIGH-RISK factor for pre-eclampsia that warrants the initiation of low-dose aspirin (100-150 mg daily) from 12 weeks of gestation?
A.First pregnancy (nulliparity)
B.Maternal age of 35 years or older
C.Chronic kidney disease
D.Body mass index (BMI) of 28 kg/m²
Explanation: Chronic kidney disease, chronic hypertension, pre-existing diabetes, autoimmune diseases (like SLE or APS), or prior pre-eclampsia are high-risk factors for pre-eclampsia. Guidelines recommend daily low-dose aspirin starting from 12 weeks of gestation for women with one or more of these high-risk factors.
4A pregnant woman is Rh-negative (D-negative) and has no detectable anti-D antibodies. In accordance with standard antenatal care in Hong Kong, when should routine antenatal anti-D prophylaxis be administered?
A.At 12 and 20 weeks of gestation
B.At 28 and 34 weeks of gestation
C.Only within 72 hours after delivery
D.Immediately after any routine ultrasound scan
Explanation: Routine antenatal anti-D prophylaxis is typically administered to unsensitized Rh-negative women in a two-dose regimen at 28 and 34 weeks of gestation (or as a single dose at 28-30 weeks). This protects against silent feto-maternal hemorrhage during the third trimester.
5What is the recommended daily dose of folic acid for a low-risk pregnant woman starting at least one month before conception and continuing through the first 12 weeks of pregnancy to prevent neural tube defects (NTDs)?
A.0.4 mg (400 micrograms)
B.1.0 mg
C.4.0 mg
D.5.0 mg
Explanation: For low-risk women, a daily dose of 0.4 mg (400 mcg) of folic acid is recommended to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. For women at high risk (e.g., prior pregnancy with NTD, maternal pre-existing diabetes, or taking anti-epileptic drugs), a higher dose of 5.0 mg daily is recommended.
6When measuring symphysis-fundal height (SFH) to assess fetal growth between 24 and 36 weeks of gestation, what is the generally accepted normal variance in centimeters compared to the gestational age in weeks?
A.Within +/- 1 cm
B.Within +/- 2 cm
C.Within +/- 3 cm
D.Within +/- 4 cm
Explanation: Symphysis-fundal height (SFH) in centimeters should correspond to the gestational age in weeks (+/- 2 cm) between 24 and 36 weeks. A variance of more than 2 cm warrants further assessment with ultrasound biometry to check for fetal growth restriction (FGR) or macrosomia.
7During abdominal palpation of a pregnant woman (Leopold's maneuvers), what is the primary purpose of the third maneuver (Pawlik's grip)?
A.To identify the fetal parts occupying the uterine fundus
B.To determine the location of the fetal back and small parts
C.To identify the presenting part and check if it is engaged
D.To determine the degree of flexion of the fetal head
Explanation: The third maneuver (Pawlik's grip) involves grasping the lower uterine segment above the symphysis pubis with the thumb and fingers of one hand. It is used to identify the presenting part (head or breech), assess its mobility, and determine whether it is engaged in the pelvis.
8Ideally, a pregnant woman's antenatal booking visit (first booking) in Hong Kong should take place within which gestational timeframe?
A.Before 10 to 12 weeks of gestation
B.At 14 to 16 weeks of gestation
C.At 18 to 20 weeks of gestation
D.Whenever quickening is first felt
Explanation: Antenatal booking should occur early, ideally before 10 to 12 weeks of gestation. Early booking allows for accurate gestational dating, early identification of risk factors, and timely provision of first-trimester screening (e.g., for Down syndrome and pre-eclampsia risk).
9A routine antenatal blood test reveals that a pregnant woman at 10 weeks of gestation is not immune to Rubella. Which of the following is the correct management strategy?
A.Administer the MMR vaccine immediately
B.Administer the MMR vaccine at 28 weeks of gestation
C.Advise her to avoid contact with infected individuals and vaccinate her in the immediate postpartum period
D.Re-test her rubella antibodies in the third trimester to see if immunity has developed
Explanation: The Measles, Mumps, and Rubella (MMR) vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine and is contraindicated during pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of congenital rubella syndrome in the fetus. The woman should be advised to avoid exposure to rubella and receive the MMR vaccine after delivery (postpartum) to protect future pregnancies.
10When educating a pregnant woman about monitoring fetal movements using a 'kick chart' in the third trimester, what advice should the midwife give regarding when to contact the hospital?
A.If she counts fewer than 10 movements in a 12-hour period
B.If she counts fewer than 10 movements in 2 hours during a period of focused attention
C.If she does not feel any movement for a single hour
D.Only if she feels no movement for a full 24 hours
Explanation: If a woman notices a reduction in fetal movements, she should be advised to rest on her left side and focus on fetal movements. She should contact the hospital immediately if she feels fewer than 10 movements over a 2-hour period, or if she perceives a significant and persistent reduction in her baby's normal movement pattern.
About the Midwifery Exam Exam
This practice exam covers antepartum care, intrapartum care, delivery, postpartum, neonatal care, obstetric emergencies, and midwifery professional ethics.
Assessment
100 multiple-choice questions
Time Limit
3 hours
Passing Score
60%
Exam Fee
Free (Midwives Council of Hong Kong)
Midwifery Exam Exam Content Outline
20%
Antepartum Care & Monitoring
Prenatal screening, gestational diabetes, preeclampsia, and fetal growth assessment.
20%
Intrapartum Care & Delivery
Stages of labor, CTG monitoring, pain relief, and normal vaginal delivery.
20%
Postpartum & Neonatal Care
Postpartum hemorrhage prevention, breastfeeding support, and newborn assessment (APGAR).
20%
Obstetric Emergencies
Shoulder dystocia, cord prolapse, eclampsia, and amniotic fluid embolism management.
20%
Midwifery Professional Ethics
Midwives Council code of practice, statutory duties, and patient consent guidelines.
How to Pass the Midwifery Exam Exam
What You Need to Know
- Passing score: 60%
- Assessment: 100 multiple-choice questions
- Time limit: 3 hours
- Exam fee: Free
Keys to Passing
- Complete 500+ practice questions
- Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
- Focus on highest-weighted sections
- Use our AI tutor for tough concepts
Frequently Asked Questions
What is the format of the Midwifery Exam exam?
The exam consists of 100 multiple-choice questions covering all five content domains.
What is the passing score for the Midwifery Exam exam?
Candidates must score at least 60% to pass the exam.