Free Practice Questions for EASA IR

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Key Facts: EASA IR Exam

7 papers

Separately Examined Subjects

EASA Part-FCL FCL.615

253 MCQs

Total Official Questions

AMC1 ARA.FCL.300(b)

75%

Pass Mark Per Paper

EASA Part-FCL FCL.025

18 months

Window to Pass All Papers

EASA Part-FCL FCL.025

36 months

Theory Credit Validity for Rating Issue

EASA Part-FCL FCL.025

The EASA Instrument Rating (IR) theory examination comprises 7 separate multiple-choice papers containing 253 questions and 7 hours of testing time. A passing score of at least 75% is required in every paper within an 18-month window, across no more than 6 sittings and 4 attempts per subject. Unlike professional-licence courses, the standalone IR theoretical course does not carry the Area 100 KSA requirement. This independent English-language study bank contains 100 original MCQs weighted to the official IR paper allocation and is not an official ECQB simulation or translation.

Sample EASA IR Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the EASA IR exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Under EASA SERA.5015, what is the minimum altitude for an IFR flight over mountainous areas or in mountainous terrain, unless otherwise authorized by ATC?

A.At least 600 m (2,000 ft) above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft

B.At least 300 m (1,000 ft) above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft

C.At least 600 m (2,000 ft) above the highest obstacle located within 20 km of the track

D.At least 150 m (500 ft) above terrain or highest obstacle

Explanation: Under SERA.5015(b)(1), except when necessary for take-off or landing, an IFR flight over high terrain or in mountainous areas shall be flown at a level which is at least 600 m (2,000 ft) above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft. Over non-mountainous terrain, the minimum is 300 m (1,000 ft).

2Under EASA Standardised European Rules of the Air (SERA), in which airspace classes are ALL flights (IFR and VFR) subject to air traffic control clearance and provided with separation from each other?

A.Class A and Class B

B.Class A, B, and C

C.Class A only

D.Class B and Class C only

Explanation: In Class A airspace, only IFR flights are permitted and all are separated from each other. In Class B airspace, both IFR and VFR flights are permitted, and all flights are provided with ATC separation from all other flights. In Class C, IFR flights are separated from IFR and VFR, but VFR flights are not separated from other VFR.

3What is the standard maximum indicated airspeed (IAS) permitted for an IFR flight operating below FL 100 in Class C, D, E, F, or G airspace under SERA.6001?

A.250 kt IAS

B.210 kt IAS

C.180 kt IAS

D.280 kt IAS

Explanation: SERA.6001 Table S6-1 specifies a speed limitation of 250 kt IAS for all flights below 3,050 m (10,000 ft / FL 100) in airspace Classes C, D, E, F, and G, unless otherwise authorized by ATC or where the aircraft's minimum clean maneuvering speed exceeds 250 kt.

4For an aeroplane under EASA Part-CAT, when reported visibility or controlling RVR is below the applicable minimum, where does the approach-continuation restriction apply?

A.The approach may not continue past 1,000 ft above aerodrome elevation, or into the final approach segment when DH or MDH is above 1,000 ft

B.The aircraft may not pass the final approach fix under any circumstances when reported visibility is below the applicable minimum

C.The aircraft may continue to DH or MDH whenever it began the approach before the visibility fell below the applicable minimum

D.The restriction applies only at the outer marker, irrespective of the published DH or MDH

Explanation: CAT.OP.MPA.305 uses 1,000 ft above aerodrome elevation as the continuation gate for aeroplanes, or entry into the final approach segment if DH or MDH is higher than 1,000 ft. If deterioration is reported after the aircraft is already below the applicable gate, the regulation does not require discontinuation solely for that report; the required visual reference is still necessary at DA/H or MDA/H.

5Under ICAO Annex 2 and EASA SERA, what semicircular cruising level rule applies to an IFR flight flying on a magnetic track of 045° at and above the transition level?

A.An odd thousands flight level (e.g. FL 70, FL 90, FL 110)

B.An even thousands flight level (e.g. FL 80, FL 100, FL 120)

C.An odd thousands plus 500 ft flight level (e.g. FL 75, FL 95)

D.An even thousands plus 500 ft flight level (e.g. FL 85, FL 105)

Explanation: Under the standard semicircular system for IFR flights: tracks from 000° to 179° (magnetic) use ODD thousands flight levels (FL 50, FL 70, FL 90, etc.), while tracks from 180° to 359° use EVEN thousands flight levels (FL 60, FL 80, FL 100, etc.).

6What is the minimum visual reference required to descend below Decision Height (DH) on a standard Category I (CAT I) precision ILS approach?

A.At least one specified visual reference, such as an element of the approach lights, threshold or its markings/lights, threshold identification lights, visual glide-path indicator, touchdown zone or runway edge lights

B.The runway surface and both runway edges must be clearly visible for at least 1,000 meters ahead

C.At least three consecutive approach lights or the runway threshold bar

D.Visual contact with the aerodrome control tower and rotating beacon

Explanation: For a CAT I instrument approach operation, EASA's applicable AMC lists visual references associated with the intended runway. At least one specified element must be distinctly visible and identifiable at DA/H, and the reference must then be maintained to continue the landing.

7In the event of complete two-way radio failure while operating under IFR in Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC), what routing must the pilot follow under SERA.8035?

A.Maintain the last assigned speed and level (or minimum flight altitude if higher) for 20 minutes following failure to report over a compulsory reporting point, and thereafter adjust level and speed in accordance with the filed flight plan, continuing along the current flight plan route to the appropriate navigation aid serving the destination

B.Turn immediately 90° right, descend to the lowest safe altitude, and land at the nearest suitable aerodrome within 30 minutes

C.Squawk 7700, reverse course along the inbound route, and return to the departure aerodrome at the lowest IFR altitude

D.Maintain the last cleared level and hold indefinitely over the nearest VOR until fuel exhaustion forces a descent

Explanation: Under current SERA.14083, an IFR flight that cannot continue in VMC normally maintains the last assigned speed and level, or the minimum flight altitude if higher, for 20 minutes after a required report is missed or, when surveillance is provided, after code 7600 is set. It then adjusts to the filed flight plan as amended, follows the current flight plan route and uses the prescribed destination, descent and approach sequence. A published SID or STAR radio-failure procedure takes precedence when provided.

8Under EASA Part-NCO / Part-CAT, when is a take-off alternate aerodrome mandatory for an IFR departure?

A.When the meteorological conditions at the aerodrome of departure are at or below the applicable aerodrome landing minima, or when it would not be possible to return to the departure aerodrome for other reasons

B.Whenever the flight is planned to operate at night in an aircraft with a single engine

C.Only when the departure aerodrome has no operational ILS Category II or III facility

D.On every commercial IFR flight regardless of weather conditions

Explanation: A take-off alternate aerodrome must be selected and specified in the operational flight plan if the weather conditions at the aerodrome of departure are below the applicable landing minima for that aerodrome, or if it would not be possible to return to the aerodrome of departure for other reasons (e.g. runway closure, performance limitations).

9What is the difference between a Decision Altitude/Height (DA/H) and a Minimum Descent Altitude/Height (MDA/H) in instrument approach operations?

A.A DA/H is used on precision approaches (3D) and mandates an immediate missed approach without level-off if visual reference is not established; an MDA/H is used on non-precision approaches (2D) and permits level flight down to the Missed Approach Point (MAPt)

B.A DA/H is referenced strictly to mean sea level, whereas an MDA/H is referenced strictly to aerodrome elevation

C.An MDA/H requires an autopilot coupled approach, whereas a DA/H must be flown purely manually

D.A DA/H applies to helicopters, whereas an MDA/H applies exclusively to fixed-wing aeroplanes

Explanation: A Decision Altitude/Height (DA/H) applies to 3D operations (precision or APV approaches) where the pilot must immediately initiate a missed approach upon reaching DA/H if visual reference is not established; no level-off is permitted. An MDA/H applies to 2D non-precision approaches, where the pilot may level off at MDA/H and fly to the Missed Approach Point (MAPt) looking for visual reference.

10On a high-level significant-weather chart, why is a marked tropopause fold near a strong jet stream operationally important?

A.It can identify a zone of strong vertical and horizontal wind shear where clear-air turbulence is more likely

B.It shows that clear-air turbulence is confined to the warm side of the jet and cannot occur near the fold

C.It marks a mandatory jet-stream crossing level that avoids the strongest wind

D.It indicates weak vertical shear because the stratospheric and tropospheric air masses are thoroughly mixed

Explanation: A tropopause fold is associated with a steep tropopause gradient and strong changes of wind with height near a jet. Those shear zones, especially on the cold side of the jet, are favoured regions for clear-air turbulence even when no convective cloud is visible.

About the EASA IR Exam

The EASA Instrument Rating (IR) theoretical knowledge examination is the European assessment under Part-FCL FCL.615 and AMC1 ARA.FCL.300(b) for an instrument rating. Member-State competent authorities administer 7 multiple-choice papers selected from the European Central Question Bank (ECQB), totaling 253 questions and 7 hours across Air Law, Instrumentation, Flight Planning and Monitoring, Human Performance, Meteorology, Radio Navigation, and IFR Communications. This independent English-language MCQ bank is based on public learning objectives; it does not reproduce the confidential ECQB, claim to be an official translation, or determine the language offered by a national authority.

Exam sponsor: EASA Member-State National Competent Authorities. The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Questions

253 questions

Time Limit

7 hours total across 7 separate papers

Passing Score

75% in each of the 7 subjects

Exam / Certification Fees

Set by national aviation authorities (e.g., DKK 875 per subject/attempt in Denmark)

Exam sponsor website

Reported exam pass rate: Not centrally published. EASA does not publish a single aggregate pass rate; minimum 75% per subject required Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Official sources

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

30 questions (~11.9%)

Air Law

ICAO Annexes, EASA Air Operations, IFR airspace classifications, air traffic control procedures, radar vectoring, and aerodrome operating minima

20 questions (~7.9%)

Instrumentation

Pitot-static systems, pressure altimeters, airspeed indicators, gyroscopic flight instruments, EFIS displays, TCAS, EGPWS, weather radar, and flight director/autopilot systems

27 questions (~10.7%)

Flight Planning & Monitoring

IFR navigation logs, ICAO flight plan filing, fuel policies, alternate aerodrome selection, SIDs, STARs, instrument approach plates, and PBN/RNP specifications

35 questions (~13.8%)

Human Performance & Limitations

Spatial disorientation, vestibular and visual illusions, hypoxia, instrument flying physiology, cognitive workload, situational awareness, and crew resource management

63 questions (~24.9%)

Meteorology

Altimetry, low-level temperature inversions, jet streams, clear air turbulence, airframe icing mechanisms, thunderstorm hazards, and METAR/TAF/SIGMET analysis

44 questions (~17.4%)

Radio Navigation

VOR, DME, NDB, ILS, microwave landing systems, GNSS/GPS constellation, SBAS/EGNOS, GBAS, PBN navigation specifications, and 2D/3D instrument approaches

34 questions (~13.4%)

Communications (IFR)

IFR standard phraseology, ATC clearances and readback requirements, distress and urgency communications, and loss of radio communication procedures under IFR

Preparing for the EASA IR Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: 75% in each of the 7 subjects
Exam length: 253 questions
Time limit: 7 hours total across 7 separate papers
Exam / certification fees: Set by national aviation authorities (e.g., DKK 875 per subject/attempt in Denmark) Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

Work through all 100 available questions
Review every answer and explanation
Track weak areas and revisit them
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EASA IR: Suggested Study Strategy

1Distinguish the current fuel schemes: for example, the Part-CAT basic scheme uses 45-minute piston or 30-minute turbine final reserve at holding speed, while Part-NCO IFR guidance uses 45 minutes for aeroplanes

2Practice interpreting Standard Instrument Departures (SIDs), Standard Terminal Arrival Routes (STARs), and IAP approach plates (minimum sector altitudes, decision altitudes/heights, MDA/MDH)

3Drill instrument scanning techniques and understand vestibular illusions (the leans, coriolis effect, somatogravic illusion) to avoid spatial disorientation

4Thoroughly understand Performance-Based Navigation (PBN), RNAV 1, RNP 1, RNP APCH (LNAV, LNAV/VNAV, LPV), and RAIM prediction principles

5Review radio failure procedures under IFR in visual conditions vs instrument conditions per SERA and ICAO Doc 4444

Frequently Asked Questions

How many subjects are on the EASA Instrument Rating (IR) theory exam?

The EASA IR theoretical examination consists of 7 subjects: Air Law (010), Instrumentation (022), Flight Planning and Monitoring (033), Human Performance and Limitations (040), Meteorology (050), Radio Navigation (062), and Communications (090).

Does the EASA IR theory exam differ between aeroplanes and helicopters?

Under AMC1 ARA.FCL.300(b), the theoretical knowledge examination uses a combined IR(A)/IR(H) schedule of 253 questions across 7 hours. The theoretical learning objectives are shared, while practical flight training and skill tests remain category-specific.

What are the passing criteria and retake limits for EASA IR theory?

Candidates must achieve at least 75% in each of the 7 subject papers. Under Part-FCL FCL.025, candidates have up to 4 attempts per subject and a maximum of 6 sittings within 18 months. Failing any paper on the 4th attempt or exceeding 6 sittings requires retaking all 7 papers.

Is Area 100 KSA required for the EASA Instrument Rating?

No. Under Part-FCL FCL.025, the Area 100 KSA summative assessment and mental-maths requirement applies only to professional pilot licence courses (ATPL, CPL, and MPL). Modular and standalone IR courses do not carry the Area 100 KSA prerequisite.