100+ Free EASA CPL(A) Practice Questions

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: EASA CPL(A) Exam

13 papers

Separately Examined Subjects

EASA Part-FCL FCL.310

481 MCQs

Total Official Questions

AMC1 ARA.FCL.300(b)

75%

Pass Mark Per Paper

EASA Part-FCL FCL.025

18 months

Examination Completion Window

EASA Part-FCL FCL.025

36 months

Theory Credit Validity for Licence

EASA Part-FCL FCL.025

The EASA CPL(A) theoretical knowledge exam comprises 13 distinct multiple-choice papers containing 481 questions and 15 hours 15 minutes of total testing time. A passing score of at least 75% is required in every paper within 18 months, 6 sittings, and no more than 4 attempts per subject. Candidates must also complete Area 100 KSA assessments before their first attempt at the final paper. This independent English-language study bank contains 100 original MCQs weighted to the official CPL(A) paper allocation and is not an official ECQB simulation or translation.

Sample EASA CPL(A) Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your EASA CPL(A) exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Under the Chicago Convention of 1944, which Article establishes that every contracting State has complete and exclusive sovereignty over the airspace above its territory?

A.Article 1

B.Article 5

C.Article 12

D.Article 33

Explanation: Article 1 of the Convention on International Civil Aviation (Chicago Convention) explicitly recognises that every State has complete and exclusive sovereignty over the airspace above its territory. This principle is the cornerstone of international air law.

2Under EASA Part-FCL FCL.025, what is the maximum number of sittings and attempts per subject permitted for an applicant to pass all theoretical knowledge examination papers?

A.6 sittings and 4 attempts per subject

B.4 sittings and 6 attempts per subject

C.6 sittings and 3 attempts per subject

D.8 sittings and 4 attempts per subject

Explanation: FCL.025(b) stipulates that an applicant must pass all required theoretical knowledge examination papers within a maximum of 6 sittings and no more than 4 attempts at any individual subject. Exceeding either limit requires retaking all papers.

3Under EASA Standardised European Rules of the Air (SERA), what are the minimum VMC visibility and distance-from-cloud criteria for VFR flight in Class G airspace at or below 900 m (3,000 ft) AMSL or 300 m (1,000 ft) above terrain, whichever is higher?

A.5 km flight visibility, clear of cloud and with the surface in sight

B.8 km flight visibility, 1,500 m horizontal and 300 m (1,000 ft) vertical cloud separation

C.1.5 km flight visibility, 1,000 m horizontal and 150 m vertical cloud separation

D.5 km flight visibility, 1,500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical cloud separation

Explanation: Under SERA.5001, when operating at or below 900 m (3,000 ft) AMSL or 300 m (1,000 ft) above terrain in Class F and G airspace, the VMC minima are 5 km flight visibility, clear of cloud, and with the surface in sight (or 1.5 km visibility for helicopters / low-speed aircraft if permitted).

4According to ICAO Annex 13 and EU Regulation 996/2010, which event is classified as an 'Accident' rather than a 'Serious Incident'?

A.A person sustains fatal injuries as a result of direct contact with any part of the aircraft, including parts which have become detached

B.A near collision requiring an avoidance manoeuvre to avoid a collision or an unsafe situation

C.Take-off aborted on a closed or engaged runway with no structural damage or injury

D.In-flight fire extinguished successfully without structural damage or serious injuries

Explanation: Under ICAO Annex 13 and Regulation (EU) No 996/2010, an occurrence is an accident when a person is fatally or seriously injured as a result of being in the aircraft, direct contact with any part thereof, or direct exposure to jet blast, or when the aircraft sustains damage requiring major repair, or is completely inaccessible.

5Under AMC1 NCO.OP.125(b), what final reserve should normally be planned for an aeroplane flying VFR by day, other than a same-aerodrome flight that remains in sight of that aerodrome?

A.30 minutes at holding speed at 1,500 ft above the destination

B.45 minutes at normal cruising speed regardless of the type of flight

C.10 minutes at maximum continuous cruise power

D.15 minutes at holding speed at 1,500 ft above the destination

Explanation: The current AMC recommends 30 minutes at holding speed at 1,500 ft above destination for an ordinary day-VFR aeroplane flight. The special same-aerodrome day-VFR case that stays in sight may use 10 minutes at maximum continuous cruise power, while night VFR and IFR use 45 minutes at holding speed.

6When two power-driven heavier-than-air aeroplanes are converging at approximately the same altitude on crossing courses, which rules of the air apply under SERA.3210?

A.The aircraft that has the other on its right shall give way

B.The aircraft that has the other on its left shall give way

C.Both aircraft shall turn to their respective left immediately

D.The faster aircraft must climb while the slower aircraft maintains course

Explanation: Under SERA.3210(c)(1), when two aircraft of the same category are converging at approximately the same level, the aircraft that has the other on its right shall give way by altering course or avoiding passing over, under, or ahead.

7Why can a serviceable magneto-ignition piston engine continue running after the aircraft battery master switch is turned off?

A.Each engine-driven magneto generates its own ignition current independently of the aircraft electrical system

B.The battery feeds conventional ignition coils through a circuit that bypasses the master contactor

C.The alternator supplies low-voltage current directly to the spark plugs after engine start

D.The starter motor remains energised at low power and drives the ignition distributor

Explanation: A magneto is an engine-driven, self-contained electrical generator for the ignition system. Once the engine is turning, it does not need the aircraft battery or alternator to energise the spark plugs; the magneto switch and its earthing leads control whether it operates.

8Under EASA Part-MED, what is the standard validity period of a Class 1 medical certificate for a commercial pilot who is 35 years of age and engaged in single-pilot commercial air transport operations?

A.12 months

B.6 months

C.24 months

D.60 months

Explanation: Under MED.A.045, Class 1 medical certificates are valid for 12 months. The validity period is reduced to 6 months for licence holders who are 40 years of age or older and engaged in single-pilot commercial air transport carrying passengers, or 60 years or older in any commercial operations.

9In a modern semi-monocoque aircraft fuselage structure, which structural members primarily absorb and carry the longitudinal bending loads?

A.Longerons and stringers

B.Formers and bulkheads

C.Skin panels exclusively

D.Floor beams and seat rails

Explanation: In semi-monocoque construction, longerons and stringers run longitudinally to carry tensile and compressive bending loads, while the thin skin resists shear and torsional stress, and formers/bulkheads provide cross-sectional shape and rigidity.

10What is the primary function of an oleo-pneumatic shock strut used in light twin and commercial training aircraft landing gear?

A.To absorb landing kinetic energy through hydraulic fluid metering and dissipate recoil through compressed nitrogen gas

B.To maintain constant tire inflation pressure during high-speed taxi and heavy landings

C.To supply the wheel-brake circuit with pressure throughout the landing roll

D.To absorb the impact using gas compression alone, without hydraulic damping

Explanation: An oleo-pneumatic strut absorbs landing impact energy as oil is forced through an orifice (damping shock) and compresses nitrogen gas in the upper cylinder, which acts as a progressive spring and cushions the landing touchdown.

About the EASA CPL(A) Exam

The EASA CPL(A) theoretical knowledge examination is the European commercial pilot aeroplane theory examination under Part-FCL FCL.310 and AMC1 ARA.FCL.300(b). Member-State competent authorities administer 13 separate multiple-choice papers selected from the European Central Question Bank (ECQB), totaling 481 questions and 15 hours 15 minutes. Subjects span Air Law, Aircraft General Knowledge, Instrumentation, Mass and Balance, Aeroplane Performance, Flight Planning, Human Performance, Meteorology, General Navigation, Radio Navigation, Operational Procedures, Principles of Flight, and Communications. This independent English-language MCQ bank is based on public learning objectives; it does not reproduce the confidential ECQB, claim to be an official translation, or determine the language offered by a national authority.

Questions

481 scored questions

Time Limit

15 hours 15 minutes total across 13 separate papers

Passing Score

75% in each of the 13 subjects

Exam Fee

Set by national aviation authorities (e.g., DKK 875 per subject/attempt in Denmark) (EASA Member-State National Competent Authorities)

EASA CPL(A) Exam Content Outline

63 questions (~13.1%)

Air Law & Operational Procedures

EASA Part-FCL, Part-NCO/SPO/CAT, airspace classification, ATS rules, and standard/emergency operational procedures

100 questions (~20.8%)

Aircraft General Knowledge & Instrumentation

Airframe structures, hydraulic and electrical systems, piston engines, pitot-static instruments, gyros, and EFIS

49 questions (~10.2%)

Mass & Balance and Aeroplane Performance

Centre of gravity calculations, moment arms, load sheets, CS-23 take-off/climb/landing charts, and cruise profiles

67 questions (~13.9%)

General Navigation & Radio Navigation

Earth geometry, 1-in-60 rule, triangle of velocities, dead reckoning, VOR, ADF, DME, ILS, and GNSS/PBN

96 questions (~20.0%)

Meteorology & Flight Planning

Atmospheric physics, pressure systems, fronts, aviation weather decoding, VFR route planning, and fuel reserves

72 questions (~15.0%)

Principles of Flight & Human Performance

Subsonic aerodynamics, lift/drag polar, stall/spin dynamics, aviation physiology, hypoxia, and crew resource management

34 questions (~7.1%)

Communications

VFR radiotelephony phraseology, transmission protocols, distress/urgency communications, and radio failure procedures

How to Pass the EASA CPL(A) Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: 75% in each of the 13 subjects
Exam length: 481 questions
Time limit: 15 hours 15 minutes total across 13 separate papers
Exam fee: Set by national aviation authorities (e.g., DKK 875 per subject/attempt in Denmark)

Keys to Passing

Work through all 100 available questions
Review every answer and explanation
Track weak areas and revisit them
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

EASA CPL(A) Study Tips from Top Performers

1Master dead reckoning and the triangle of velocities (wind correction angle, ground speed, and heading) using manual slide-rule techniques

2Work real calculations for Mass & Balance (CG limits, zero fuel mass, index shifts) and CS-23 performance graphs

3Memorize EASA VFR weather minima, cloud separation criteria, and airspace classifications (Classes A through G)

4Practice decoding METAR, TAF, SIGMET, and low-level significant weather charts (SWC) under tight time limits

5Learn specific piston engine operating principles, fuel injection vs carburetor icing, and mixture control

Frequently Asked Questions

How many subjects are tested in the EASA CPL(A) theoretical knowledge exam?

There are 13 separate subjects tested: Air Law (010), AGK Airframe/Systems/Powerplant (021), AGK Instrumentation (022), Mass and Balance (031), Performance Aeroplanes (032), Flight Planning and Monitoring (033), Human Performance (040), Meteorology (050), General Navigation (061), Radio Navigation (062), Operational Procedures (070), Principles of Flight Aeroplanes (081), and Communications (090).

What is the passing score and retake rule for EASA CPL(A) theory?

Candidates must score at least 75% in each of the 13 subjects. Under Part-FCL FCL.025, candidates have a maximum of 4 attempts per subject and 6 examination sittings within an 18-month window. Failing any subject on the 4th attempt or exceeding 6 sittings requires retaking all 13 subjects.

What is Area 100 KSA and when must it be completed?

Area 100 Knowledge, Skills, and Attitudes (KSA) is an ATO-administered training assessment emphasizing core competencies, critical thinking, and mental maths. Under EASA regulations, the ATO summative assessments and mental-maths test must be successfully completed before the candidate's first attempt at their final theoretical knowledge paper.

How does CPL(A) theory differ from ATPL(A) theory?

While both cover the same 13 subject headings, CPL(A) has a distinct syllabus of 481 questions across 15 hours 15 minutes, tailored to commercial single-pilot aeroplane operations under Part-FCL FCL.310 and AMC1 ARA.FCL.300(b). ATPL(A) covers 671 questions and 20 hours 45 minutes with extensive multi-crew, high-altitude, and jet transport learning objectives.