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100+ Free CMT Level III Practice Questions

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A practitioner describes four indicator types for portfolio risk: trend, breadth, sentiment, and volatility. Combining them is intended to:

A
B
C
D
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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: CMT Level III Exam

4 hrs

Exam Duration

CMT Program Guide 2026

~240 pts

Total Exam Points

CMT Association FAQ

95% / 5%

Application vs Ethics Weighting

CMT Program Guide 2026

120-160 hrs

Suggested Study Time

CMT Program Guide 2026

$875

Early Registration Fee

CMT Association FAQ

2x / yr

June & December Windows

CMT Association FAQ

CMT Level III is the integrative capstone of the CMT Program, run by the CMT Association. The 4-hour exam is delivered at Prometric centers or via ProProctor and is organized into grouped items that weave together two or more knowledge domains; some items are multiple choice, but most are short-answer constructed responses worth roughly 240 points total, with about one minute of time intended per point. The 2026 domains center on Application of Technical Analysis (about 95%) plus Ethics (about 5%), covering risk and portfolio management, asset relationships and intermarket analysis, classical and quantitative methods, behavioral finance, volatility analysis, and systems development. Ethics follows the adopted CFA Institute Code and Standards. Level III fees are USD 875 early, USD 1,075 standard, and USD 1,475 late, before local taxes.

Sample CMT Level III Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your CMT Level III exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1On the CMT Level III exam, most groups weave together two or more knowledge domains. What is the PRIMARY skill this design is intended to test?
A.Integration and application of multiple analytical tools into a coherent market decision
B.Rote recall of a single indicator's formula in isolation
C.Speed at answering simple multiple-choice items
D.Memorization of the Dow Theory tenets only
Explanation: Level III, 'The Work of a Technical Analyst,' tests synthesis: candidates must integrate concepts and tools (classical, quantitative, behavioral, risk) into applied decisions. Grouped items deliberately span domains to assess application rather than recall.
2A portfolio manager wants to limit the loss on a single position to no more than 1% of a $2,000,000 portfolio. If the entry is $50 and the protective stop is $48, how many shares can be bought?
A.8,000 shares
B.10,000 shares
C.20,000 shares
D.1,000 shares
Explanation: Risk per share = $50 - $48 = $2. Dollar risk allowed = 1% x $2,000,000 = $20,000. Position size = $20,000 / $2 = 10,000 shares. This fixed-fractional method ties position size to the stop distance, not to a fixed dollar amount.
3Value at Risk (VaR) at the 95% confidence level for a one-day horizon tells a technician that:
A.The portfolio will never lose more than the VaR figure
B.The average daily loss equals the VaR figure
C.Losses are expected to exceed the VaR figure on about 5% of days
D.The maximum possible loss equals the VaR figure
Explanation: A 95% one-day VaR is the loss threshold expected to be exceeded on roughly 5% of trading days (about 1 in 20). It is a quantile, not a maximum. Conditional VaR (CVaR/Expected Shortfall) measures the average loss in that tail beyond VaR.
4On a Relative Rotation Graph (RRG), a security plotted in the 'Leading' quadrant with the tail rotating toward the 'Weakening' quadrant most likely indicates:
A.A security uncorrelated with the benchmark
B.A new emerging leader to add aggressively
C.A lagging security improving rapidly
D.Strong relative strength that is beginning to lose momentum
Explanation: RRG quadrants rotate clockwise: Improving to Leading to Weakening to Lagging. A security in Leading with its tail curling toward Weakening still has strong relative strength (JdK RS-Ratio > 100) but declining relative momentum (RS-Momentum falling), an early warning to trim or watch.
5Anchored VWAP (AVWAP) differs from a conventional rolling VWAP primarily because AVWAP:
A.Begins its volume-weighted calculation from a user-selected significant bar (an anchor)
B.Resets at the start of every trading session automatically
C.Ignores volume and uses only closing prices
D.Can only be applied to intraday data
Explanation: AVWAP starts the cumulative volume-weighted average from a deliberately chosen anchor point such as an earnings date, a swing high/low, or a gap, rather than resetting each session. This lets the technician measure the average participant cost since a meaningful event.
6A trade has a 40% win rate. Winners average $900 and losers average $300. Using the expectancy formula, the expected value per trade is:
A.$120
B.$180
C.$600
D.-$180
Explanation: Expectancy = (Win% x Avg Win) - (Loss% x Avg Loss) = (0.40 x $900) - (0.60 x $300) = $360 - $180 = $180 per trade. A positive expectancy means the system makes money on average even with a sub-50% win rate, because winners are larger than losers.
7The CMT Association has adopted which body's Code of Ethics and Standards of Professional Conduct as the ethics framework tested on all three CMT levels?
A.The SEC Regulation Best Interest
B.FINRA Rule 2111
C.The CFA Institute Code of Ethics and Standards of Professional Conduct
D.The IFTA Ethics Charter
Explanation: The CMT Association adopted the CFA Institute Code of Ethics and Standards of Professional Conduct, with references adapted to CMT members and candidates. Ethics questions appear on all three exam levels, and the Standards of Practice Handbook is the recommended study guide.
8Under the adopted Standard on Diligence and Reasonable Basis, a CMT member publishing a technical buy recommendation must:
A.Guarantee the forecast will be profitable
B.Rely solely on a single indicator to stay consistent
C.Disclose only positive evidence supporting the call
D.Have a reasonable and adequate analytical basis supported by appropriate research and investigation
Explanation: Diligence and Reasonable Basis requires that recommendations rest on thorough, reasonable, and adequate analysis. A technician must investigate sufficiently and document a defensible basis; cherry-picking confirming evidence or guaranteeing outcomes violates the standard.
9In intermarket analysis, a sustained rise in the US Dollar Index (DXY) is conventionally a headwind for which asset class, all else equal?
A.Dollar-denominated commodities such as gold and crude oil
B.US Treasury bonds exclusively
C.Domestic small-cap value stocks only
D.Cash money-market funds
Explanation: A stronger dollar typically pressures dollar-denominated commodities because they become more expensive in other currencies, dampening demand. This inverse dollar-commodity relationship is a core intermarket linkage technicians monitor for asset rotation.
10A classical chart pattern produces a measured-move target. A trader designs the trade using the ATR-multiple rule for the protective stop instead of a fixed 3% rule because the ATR method:
A.Always produces a tighter stop than the 3% rule
B.Adapts the stop distance to the instrument's recent volatility
C.Eliminates the need to define a price objective
D.Guarantees the trade cannot be stopped out prematurely
Explanation: An ATR-multiple stop scales with the instrument's average true range, so volatile markets get wider stops and quiet markets get tighter ones. This volatility-normalized placement reduces premature stop-outs from normal noise relative to a one-size fixed percentage.

About the CMT Level III Practice Questions

Verified exam format metadata for CMT Program Level III is pending. The practice questions above remain available while official exam length, timing, passing score, fee, and administrator details are reviewed.