100+ Free EUNACOM Sección Teórica Practice Questions

Prepare for the Chile EUNACOM Sección Teórica — Examen Único Nacional de Conocimientos de Medicina exam with instant access — no signup required.

✓ No registration✓ No credit card✓ No hidden fees✓ Start practicing immediately

100+ Questions

100% Free

Loading practice questions...

Same family resources

Explore More Chile EUNACOM National Medical Licensing Examination (Examen Único Nacional de Conocimientos de Medicina)

Continue into nearby exams from the same family. Each card keeps practice questions, study guides, flashcards, videos, and articles in one place.

Chile EUNACOM Sección Práctica — Examen Clínico Objetivo Estructurado (ECOE)

Practice Questions100 questions

2026 Statistics

Key Facts: EUNACOM Sección Teórica Exam

180

Total Questions

ASOFAMECH EUNACOM Reglamentación Oficial

3h 30m

Testing Time

ASOFAMECH Procedimiento Pr03-2014, horario oficial 09:00–13:30

51 / 100

Passing Score

Reglamento MINSAL art. 6 y Normativa EUNACOM art. 3.2.1

$310.000 CLP

Exam Fee

ASOFAMECH EUNACOM Aranceles Oficiales

37%

Internal Medicine Weight

ASOFAMECH EUNACOM Matriz de Ponderación

16%

Pediatrics Weight

ASOFAMECH EUNACOM Matriz de Ponderación

16%

Obstetrics & Gynecology Weight

ASOFAMECH EUNACOM Matriz de Ponderación

12%

Surgery Weight

ASOFAMECH EUNACOM Matriz de Ponderación

Ley 20.261

Statutory Authority

Biblioteca del Congreso Nacional de Chile (BCN)

2 in 2026

Sittings (8 Jul, 16 Dec)

Aviso oficial ASOFAMECH publicado el 31 de marzo de 2026

1,557

Topics in Perfil v3

ASOFAMECH Perfil de Conocimientos versión 3, vigente desde diciembre 2026

Chile's EUNACOM Sección Teórica is a 180-question written examination administered by ASOFAMECH under Ley 20.261, sat in two 90-item parts of 1 h 45 min each on a single national date. It is passed with 51 points or more on a continuous 0–100 IRT-equated scale (not 51% of items correct), costs $310.000 CLP, and is weighted by the official Matriz to Internal Medicine 37%, Pediatrics 16%, Obstetrics/Gynecology 16%, Surgery 12%, Psychiatry 8%, Medical Specialties 6% and Public Health 5%.

Sample EUNACOM Sección Teórica Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your EUNACOM Sección Teórica exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 58-year-old male with a history of hypertension and smoking presents to the emergency department with 90 minutes of retrosternal crushing chest pain radiating to the left arm and jaw. An immediate 12-lead ECG reveals 3 mm ST-segment elevation in leads V1–V4. Blood pressure is 145/90 mmHg, heart rate is 88 bpm, and oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. The hospital has a functional catheterization laboratory ready to perform primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) within 45 minutes. What is the immediate first-line management protocol for this patient under Chilean GES clinical guidelines?

A.Administer oral chewable aspirin 250–300 mg, a loading dose of a P2Y12 inhibitor (such as ticagrelor or clopidogrel), and transfer immediately for primary PCI

B.Administer IV recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) immediately before transferring to the catheterization laboratory

C.Administer sublingual nitroglycerin, high-flow supplemental oxygen by non-rebreather mask, and wait for initial serum troponin results before invasive therapy

D.Administer therapeutic subcutaneous low-molecular-weight heparin and admit to the coronary care unit for elective coronary angiography at 48 hours

Explanation: According to Chilean Ministry of Health (MINSAL) GES guidelines for Acute Myocardial Infarction with ST elevation (STEMI), immediate management includes dual antiplatelet therapy (chewable aspirin 250–300 mg plus a P2Y12 inhibitor loading dose) and emergent reperfusion. When primary PCI can be achieved within 120 minutes of first medical contact (door-to-balloon <90 minutes), primary PCI is the reperfusion strategy of choice over fibrinolysis.

2A 64-year-old female with ischemic cardiomyopathy has chronic heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (LVEF 28%). She is in NYHA functional class II, taking enalapril 10 mg twice daily and bisoprolol 5 mg daily. Her blood pressure is 122/76 mmHg, heart rate is 64 bpm, serum potassium is 4.2 mEq/L, and estimated GFR is 68 mL/min/1.73 m2. According to international and Chilean clinical practice guidelines, which additional medication class should be added next to reduce cardiovascular mortality?

A.A mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist (spironolactone) and an SGLT2 inhibitor (dapagliflozin or empagliflozin)

B.A non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker (diltiazem) to optimize rate control

C.Oral digoxin to increase myocardial contractility and improve ejection fraction

D.Oral hydralazine plus isosorbide dinitrate to replace ACE inhibitor therapy

Explanation: Guideline-directed medical therapy for heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) comprises four foundational pillars ('the four pillars'): an ARNI/ACE inhibitor, an evidence-based beta-blocker, a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist (MRA such as spironolactone), and an SGLT2 inhibitor (dapagliflozin or empagliflozin). In this clinically stable patient with normal potassium and preserved renal function, adding spironolactone and an SGLT2 inhibitor provides substantial incremental mortality and hospitalization reduction.

3A 71-year-old male with a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and a prior ischemic stroke 2 years ago is diagnosed with non-valvular atrial fibrillation during a routine clinic visit. His pulse is irregular at 82 bpm, and blood pressure is 134/80 mmHg. What is his CHA2DS2-VASc score, and what is the recommended stroke prevention management?

A.Score = 5; oral anticoagulation with a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) or warfarin is strongly indicated

B.Score = 3; antiplatelet monotherapy with aspirin 100 mg daily is recommended

C.Score = 2; dual antiplatelet therapy with aspirin and clopidogrel is sufficient

D.Score = 1; no antithrombotic therapy is required because the ventricular rate is controlled

Explanation: Under the CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system: Congestive heart failure (0), Hypertension (1), Age >=75 (0, patient is 71), Diabetes mellitus (1), prior Stroke/TIA/thromboembolism (2), Vascular disease (0), Age 65–74 (1), Sex category female (0). His total score is 1 + 1 + 2 + 1 = 5. In male patients with a CHA2DS2-VASc score >=2, oral anticoagulation (preferably a DOAC such as apixaban, rivaroxaban, or dabigatran, or dose-adjusted warfarin) is strongly indicated to reduce thromboembolic stroke risk.

4A 45-year-old male with a history of bicuspid aortic valve presents with low-grade fever, malaise, night sweats, and weight loss over 4 weeks. Physical examination reveals a new 3/6 regurgitant diastolic murmur at the left sternal border and subungual splinter hemorrhages. Transthoracic echocardiography shows a 9 mm mobile vegetation on the aortic valve. What is the most appropriate initial diagnostic microbiological strategy before starting empiric antimicrobial therapy?

A.Draw at least 3 separate sets of blood cultures from different venipuncture sites separated by at least 30–60 minutes prior to administering antibiotics

B.Draw a single aerobic blood culture tube and immediately start high-dose broad-spectrum oral amoxicillin

C.Perform an immediate diagnostic pericardiocentesis to culture pericardial fluid

D.Initiate IV ceftriaxone immediately and obtain blood cultures 24 hours later once fever subsides

Explanation: Under the modified Duke criteria for infective endocarditis, obtaining at least 3 sets of blood cultures from distinct peripheral venipuncture sites (with first and last drawn at least 1 hour apart) before antibiotic initiation is critical to maximize pathogen recovery and identify typical causative microorganisms (e.g., viridans streptococci, S. aureus, enterococci).

5A 68-year-old male presents to a primary care clinic (CESFAM) with 3 days of productive cough with rust-colored sputum, right pleuritic chest pain, and fever. Vital signs: BP 105/65 mmHg, HR 92 bpm, RR 26 bpm, temperature 38.4 °C, SpO2 95% on room air. He is fully alert and oriented with no confusion (BUN is 14 mg/dL / urea 30 mg/dL). Right lung base auscultation reveals crackles and bronchial breath sounds. What is his CURB-65 score and the recommended management setting under Chilean GES guidelines for Community-Acquired Pneumonia?

A.CURB-65 = 1 (age >=65); outpatient management with oral amoxicillin or amoxicillin-clavulanate and close clinical follow-up within 48 hours

B.CURB-65 = 0; outpatient symptomatic treatment with cough suppressants without antimicrobial therapy

C.CURB-65 = 3; immediate referral for intensive care unit (ICU) admission and mechanical ventilation

D.CURB-65 = 2; mandatory hospital admission for intravenous levofloxacin monotherapy

Explanation: CURB-65 evaluates: Confusion (0), Urea >42 mg/dL or BUN >19 mg/dL (0), Respiratory rate >=30 bpm (0), Blood pressure <90 systolic or <=60 diastolic (0), and Age >=65 years (1). With a score of 1 due to age, the patient has low 30-day mortality risk and can be safely managed in the outpatient setting under Chilean GES guidelines, with oral amoxicillin (or amoxicillin/clavulanic acid) and scheduled clinical re-evaluation at 48 hours.

6A 66-year-old male with severe COPD (GOLD Stage 3) presents to the emergency room with 2 days of worsening dyspnea, increased sputum volume, and sputum purulence (Anthonisen Type 1 exacerbation). On examination, he is tachypneic at 28 bpm using accessory neck muscles, with diffuse expiratory wheezing. Arterial blood gas on room air shows pH 7.31, PaCO2 56 mmHg, PaO2 54 mmHg, and HCO3- 28 mEq/L. Which combination of acute interventions is most appropriate?

A.Controlled supplemental oxygen titrated to SpO2 88–92%, inhaled short-acting beta-2 agonist plus ipratropium, oral/IV systemic corticosteroid, oral antibiotic, and consideration of non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV)

B.High-flow oxygen via 100% non-rebreather mask, inhaled corticosteroid monotherapy, and immediate endotracheal intubation

C.IV theophylline infusion, inhaled long-acting anticholinergic, and discharge home with oral antihistamines

D.Oral loop diuretics, high-dose aspirin, and broad-spectrum antifungal therapy

Explanation: Acute exacerbation of COPD with acute hypercapnic respiratory acidosis (pH <7.35, PaCO2 >45 mmHg) and Anthonisen Type 1 criteria (increased dyspnea, volume, and purulence) requires: controlled oxygen targeting SpO2 88–92% to prevent worsening hypercapnia, inhaled SABA (salbutamol) + SAMA (ipratropium), systemic corticosteroids (e.g., prednisone 40 mg daily for 5 days), targeted antibiotic coverage (e.g., amoxicillin-clavulanate or macrolide), and early trial of non-invasive ventilation (BiPAP) to avoid invasive mechanical ventilation.

7A 22-year-old female with persistent asthma presents to the emergency department with severe wheezing and shortness of breath that began 4 hours ago. Her peak expiratory flow (PEF) is 45% of predicted value, heart rate is 112 bpm, respiratory rate is 26 bpm, and SpO2 is 93% on room air. After administering nebulized salbutamol and ipratropium, what systemic therapy must be initiated immediately to reduce hospital admission and prevent relapse?

A.Systemic corticosteroid (e.g., oral prednisone 40–50 mg or IV hydrocortisone)

B.Oral montelukast (leukotriene receptor antagonist) as monotherapy

C.Subcutaneous epinephrine 1:1,000 injection

D.Intravenous broad-spectrum ampicillin-sulbactam

Explanation: In moderate-to-severe acute asthma exacerbations (PEF <60% of personal best/predicted), systemic corticosteroids (oral prednisone 40–50 mg/day or equivalent IV corticosteroids) should be administered within the first hour of emergency care to decrease airway inflammation, speed recovery, reduce hospitalization rates, and prevent relapse.

8A 52-year-old female presents with sudden-onset right-sided pleuritic chest pain, tachypnea (RR 24 bpm), and tachycardia (HR 108 bpm) 10 days following an elective total knee arthroplasty. Her right lower extremity is swollen and tender on palpation. Blood pressure is 128/82 mmHg and oxygen saturation is 92% on room air. The modified Wells score is calculated as 7.5 points (high clinical probability for pulmonary embolism). What is the definitive diagnostic imaging modality of choice in this hemodynamically stable patient?

A.Computed tomography pulmonary angiography (CTPA / Angio-TAC de tórax)

B.Serum quantitative D-dimer assay by ELISA

C.Standard portable upright anterior-posterior chest radiograph

D.Transthoracic echocardiography to calculate pulmonary artery systolic pressure alone

Explanation: In hemodynamically stable patients with high clinical pre-test probability of pulmonary thromboembolism (Wells score >6), computed tomography pulmonary angiography (CTPA) is the gold-standard imaging modality of choice to confirm or exclude pulmonary vascular obstruction. A D-dimer assay is inappropriate in high-probability patients because a negative result cannot safely rule out pulmonary embolism.

9A diagnostic thoracentesis is performed on a 60-year-old patient with a moderate left-sided pleural effusion. Analysis of the pleural fluid reveals: pleural fluid protein 4.1 g/dL (serum protein 6.8 g/dL; ratio 0.60), pleural fluid LDH 280 U/L (serum LDH 320 U/L; ratio 0.88; laboratory upper limit of normal for serum LDH is 200 U/L). How is this effusion classified under Light's criteria, and what is the most likely underlying etiology?

A.Exudate; etiologies include parapneumonic effusion, malignancy, tuberculosis, or pulmonary infarction

B.Transudate; etiologies include congestive heart failure, liver cirrhosis, or nephrotic syndrome

C.Transudate; etiology is exclusively hypoalbuminemia secondary to protein-losing enteropathy

D.Chylothorax; confirmed by elevated pleural fluid protein alone without lipid measurement

Explanation: According to Light's criteria, a pleural effusion is an exudate if it meets at least one of the following: (1) Pleural fluid protein / serum protein ratio >0.5 (here 0.60), (2) Pleural fluid LDH / serum LDH ratio >0.6 (here 0.88), or (3) Pleural fluid LDH >2/3 the upper limit of normal serum LDH (here 280 > 133 U/L). Meeting all three criteria confirms an exudative effusion, typical of pneumonia (parapneumonic), malignancy, tuberculosis, or connective tissue disease.

10A 54-year-old male with a history of chronic alcohol use and peptic ulcer disease presents with two episodes of hematemesis and melena. On arrival, he is pale and diaphoretic with blood pressure 92/58 mmHg and heart rate 116 bpm. After establishing two large-bore IV lines, initiating isotonic crystalloid resuscitation, and ordering blood type and crossmatch, what is the most appropriate next pharmacologic and endoscopic management?

A.Administer an IV proton pump inhibitor (e.g., omeprazole 80 mg IV bolus followed by 8 mg/h infusion) and arrange urgent upper endoscopy (EGD) within 24 hours of stabilization

B.Administer oral sucralfate and perform emergency barium swallow fluoroscopy within 2 hours

C.Administer oral omeprazole 20 mg once daily and schedule elective outpatient colonoscopy in 2 weeks

D.Perform emergency blind gastric resection without endoscopic visualization

Explanation: In acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding, following hemodynamic stabilization, high-dose intravenous proton pump inhibitor therapy (omeprazole or pantoprazole 80 mg IV bolus followed by 8 mg/h continuous infusion) promotes clot stabilization and reduces rebleeding rates. Early upper endoscopy (EGD) within 24 hours is essential for diagnostic identification and endoscopic hemostasis.

About the EUNACOM Sección Teórica Exam

The EUNACOM Sección Teórica (EUNACOM-ST) is the written half of Chile's national medical examination, created by Ley 20.261 and delegated by MINSAL to ASOFAMECH. A pass is legally required to hold medical posts in the Servicios de Salud and municipal primary care, to sign FONASA libre elección agreements, to enter state-funded specialty programmes, and — since Ley 21.746 took effect on 24 May 2026 — to issue medical leave certificates (licencias médicas), including in the private sector. For a foreign-trained doctor, passing the whole EUNACOM revalidates the medical degree automatically. The theoretical section is 180 multiple-choice items in two 90-item parts across internal medicine, pediatrics, obstetrics and gynecology, surgery, psychiatry, medical specialties, and public health. Language disclosure: the real EUNACOM is sat entirely in Spanish against the official ASOFAMECH Perfil de Conocimientos. This practice bank is an English-language multiple-choice study adaptation, not an official translation and not a simulation of the exam's language environment; it uses four options per item where the real paper uses five. Official Chilean programme names, GES/AUGE guarantees and statutory terminology are kept in Spanish so they match the primary sources.

Assessment

One national sitting: 08:15–08:45 admission, 08:45–09:00 instructions, 09:00–10:45 Parte A (90 items), 10:45–11:15 break, 11:15–11:45 re-admission, 11:45–13:30 Parte B (90 items). Content is weighted by the official Composición de preguntas (Matriz) across 7 clinical areas and detailed in the Perfil de Conocimientos; Perfil version 3 (1,557 topics) applies from the December 2026 sitting onward.

Time Limit

3 hours 30 minutes of testing (two 1 h 45 min parts) plus a 30-minute break

Passing Score

51 points or more on the continuous 0–100 IRT-equated EUNACOM scale (Reglamento art. 6; Normativa art. 3.2.1) — not 51% of items answered correctly

Exam Fee

$310.000 CLP (ASOFAMECH (Asociación de Facultades de Medicina de Chile) on behalf of MINSAL under Ley 20.261)

EUNACOM Sección Teórica Exam Content Outline

37%

Internal Medicine

Cardiology (acute coronary syndromes, heart failure, hypertension, atrial fibrillation), Pulmonology (CAP, COPD, asthma, pulmonary thromboembolism), Gastroenterology & Hepatology (cirrhosis, acute pancreatitis, GI bleeding, peptic ulcer), Nephrology (acute kidney injury, CKD, hyperkalemia, glomerulopathies), Endocrinology (diabetes mellitus, DKA, HHS, thyroid disorders), Infectious Diseases (HIV, tuberculosis, pneumonia, pyelonephritis), Rheumatology (rheumatoid arthritis, SLE, gout), Hematology (anemias, coagulopathies), and Neurology (ischemic stroke, subarachnoid hemorrhage, meningitis, epilepsy).

16%

Pediatrics

Neonatal care (APGAR, neonatal jaundice, respiratory distress in the newborn), normal psychomotor development milestones, infant nutrition and breastfeeding, acute lower respiratory infections (bronchiolitis, pneumonia), acute gastroenteritis and dehydration plans, pediatric exanthems (measles, rubella, erythema infectiosum, roseola, varicella), and the Chilean National Immunization Schedule (Programa Nacional de Inmunizaciones - PNI).

16%

Obstetrics & Gynecology

Prenatal care protocols, hypertensive disorders of pregnancy (gestational hypertension, preeclampsia with/without severe features, eclampsia, magnesium sulfate protocol), gestational diabetes screening and management, third-trimester bleeding (placenta previa, placental abruption), normal labor stages and active management of the third stage (oxytocin), postpartum hemorrhage, cervical cancer screening (PAP and HPV in Chile), abnormal uterine bleeding, pelvic inflammatory disease, and contraception.

12%

Surgery (general surgery and anaesthesia 6%, traumatology 3%, urology 3%)

Acute abdomen diagnosis and management (acute appendicitis, acute cholecystitis, acute diverticulitis, intestinal obstruction), abdominal wall hernias (inguinal, crural, incisional), ATLS initial trauma management (primary ABCDE survey, tension pneumothorax, hemorrhagic shock resuscitation), burns management, pre- and post-operative surgical care, traumatology (common fractures, dislocations, compartment syndrome) and urology (renal colic, benign prostatic hyperplasia, acute urinary retention, testicular torsion).

Psychiatry

Major depressive disorder and suicide risk assessment, bipolar affective disorder, schizophrenia and first-episode psychosis, generalized anxiety and panic disorder, substance and alcohol use disorders, and acute agitation management.

Medical Specialties (dermatology, ophthalmology, otorhinolaryngology — 2% each)

Dermatology (atopic dermatitis, psoriasis, skin cancer, infectious dermatoses), Ophthalmology (red eye differential, acute angle-closure glaucoma, cataract, retinal detachment) and Otorhinolaryngology (acute otitis media, sinusitis, epistaxis, vertigo). The official Especialidades block contains only these three disciplines; traumatology and urology sit inside the 12% Cirugía block.

Public Health & Bioethics

Primary Health Care (APS) model in Chile, mandatory disease notification (Enfermedades de Notificación Obligatoria - ENO), GES/AUGE guarantees and clinical protocols, Ley 20.584 (Derechos y Deberes de los Pacientes), bioethical principles (autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, justice), and medical confidentiality.

How to Pass the EUNACOM Sección Teórica Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: 51 points or more on the continuous 0–100 IRT-equated EUNACOM scale (Reglamento art. 6; Normativa art. 3.2.1) — not 51% of items answered correctly
Assessment: One national sitting: 08:15–08:45 admission, 08:45–09:00 instructions, 09:00–10:45 Parte A (90 items), 10:45–11:15 break, 11:15–11:45 re-admission, 11:45–13:30 Parte B (90 items). Content is weighted by the official Composición de preguntas (Matriz) across 7 clinical areas and detailed in the Perfil de Conocimientos; Perfil version 3 (1,557 topics) applies from the December 2026 sitting onward.
Time limit: 3 hours 30 minutes of testing (two 1 h 45 min parts) plus a 30-minute break
Exam fee: $310.000 CLP

Keys to Passing

Work through all 100 available questions
Review every answer and explanation
Track weak areas and revisit them
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

EUNACOM Sección Teórica Study Tips from Top Performers

1Prioritize Internal Medicine (37% of exam) focusing on high-frequency cardiovascular, pulmonary, and endocrine diseases according to MINSAL GES guidelines.

2Memorize the current Chilean National Immunization Schedule (PNI) including vaccine timing, age groups, and catch-up rules.

3Master the emergency management of preeclampsia with severe features, including the Zuspan magnesium sulfate regimen (4g IV loading dose, 1-2g/h maintenance).

4Understand the diagnostic triage and surgical timing for acute abdomen (acute appendicitis, acute cholecystitis Tokyo guidelines, diverticulitis Hinchey classification).

5Review Chilean health legislation, specifically Ley 20.584 (Patient Rights and Duties) and the 90 health problems covered by the GES/AUGE decree in force for 2025–2028.

6Practice timed blocks of clinical vignettes to develop rapid pattern recognition and diagnostic accuracy.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the EUNACOM Sección Teórica?

The EUNACOM-ST (Sección Teórica) is the standardized written examination component of Chile's National Medical Examination, mandated by Ley 20.261. It evaluates the essential clinical knowledge required of a general physician in Chile across seven core medical domains.

Who is required to take the EUNACOM?

Doctors who want to hold posts in the Servicios de Salud or municipal primary care, sign FONASA libre elección agreements, or enter state-funded specialty programmes must pass it. Since Ley 21.746 came into force on 24 May 2026, a valid EUNACOM pass is also required to issue licencias médicas, including for doctors working only in the private sector. For foreign medical graduates, passing the EUNACOM revalidates the degree automatically. Doctors who qualified in Chile before 20 April 2009, those who revalidated abroad before that date, and specialists certified under art. 4 No. 13 of DFL 1/2005 cannot be required to sit it.

What is the format and passing score of the EUNACOM-ST?

180 multiple-choice items in two parts of 90, each lasting 1 hour 45 minutes, on a single national date. The published sample items use five lettered options (a–e), and wrong answers have carried no penalty since 2019. The pass mark is 51 points or more on a continuous 0–100 scale. That scale is IRT/Rasch-equated against the question bank, so 51 points is a calibrated ability threshold and is not the same as answering 51% of the items correctly.

How much does it cost to take the EUNACOM theoretical exam?

The registration fee has been $310.000 CLP since 1 July 2025, paid online through the Flow platform — bank transfers, deposits and cheques are not accepted. Graduates of ASOFAMECH member schools get a one-off subsidy on their first sitting if they take it at the first sitting after graduating. The practical section is priced separately at $470.000 (one stage), $655.000 (two or three stages) or $720.000 CLP (all four).

Is this practice question bank in Spanish or English?

This bank is an English-language multiple-choice study adaptation of the official ASOFAMECH blueprint — not an official translation, and not a simulation of the exam's language environment. The real EUNACOM is sat entirely in Spanish and uses five options per item; this bank uses four. It is designed so that candidates preparing in English can master the clinical reasoning, management protocols and Chilean health-system concepts the exam tests, with Chilean programme names, statutes and guideline titles kept in Spanish.

Which official documents define what the exam covers?

Two: the Composición de preguntas del EUNACOM (the 'Matriz'), which fixes the proportion of items per clinical area, and the Perfil de Conocimientos, which lists every topic and the depth expected of it on three axes — diagnosis (sospecha or específico), treatment (inicial or completo) and follow-up (derivar or completo). Version 3 of the Perfil, with 1,557 topics, applies from the December 2026 sitting; version 2 governed sittings up to 8 July 2026. ASOFAMECH must publish any content change at least six months before it applies.