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100+ Free EUNACOM Sección Práctica Practice Questions

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: EUNACOM Sección Práctica Exam

4 Stages

Etapas (Medicina, Pediatría, Obstetricia-ginecología, Cirugía)

Normativa EUNACOM art. 3.1 y 7.2

ECOE only

Exam Format Since 1 Jan 2026

Normativa EUNACOM art. 7.3

4/4 Pass

Passing Requirement

Normativa EUNACOM art. 3.5 y 7.8

$720.000 CLP

Fee for the Compulsory 4-Stage First Registration

Costos de inscripción al EUNACOM, vigentes desde el 1 de julio de 2025

$155.000 CLP

Homologation Fee

eunacom.cl — Inscripción y homologación del EUNACOM-SP

2 Years

Validity of the Theoretical Pass and of Each Passed Stage

Normativa EUNACOM art. 3.2.2 y 8.9

3 Months

Maximum Span From First to Last Stage

Normativa EUNACOM art. 8.11

45 Days

ASOFAMECH Deadline to Propose Dates and School

Normativa EUNACOM art. 8.6

7 Days

Deadline to Inform Each Stage Result

Normativa EUNACOM art. 8.8

Ley 20.261

Statutory Law

Biblioteca del Congreso Nacional de Chile (BCN)

Chile's EUNACOM Sección Práctica is the clinical ECOE examination administered by ASOFAMECH's member schools under Ley 20.261, in four independent stages — Medicina Interna, Pediatría, Obstetricia-ginecología and Cirugía — all four of which must be passed and simultaneously valid. Candidates need a theoretical pass no older than two years, must register for all four stages the first time at $720.000 CLP, and must complete the whole sequence within three months of starting. ASOFAMECH publishes no station count, per-station timing, stage weighting or numeric cut score.

Sample EUNACOM Sección Práctica Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your EUNACOM Sección Práctica exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 58-year-old male arrives at the emergency department triage complaining of retrosternal chest tightness radiating to the left shoulder for 45 minutes. In an OSCE clinical evaluation station for acute chest pain triage, what is the mandatory immediate sequence of actions to perform within the first 10 minutes of patient arrival?
A.Obtain a 12-lead ECG within 10 minutes, assess vital signs and SpO2, establish IV access, take a focused history, and order baseline cardiac troponins while preparing dual antiplatelet therapy if ST elevation is detected
B.Send the patient immediately for an outpatient exercise treadmill test before recording an ECG
C.Administer oral antacids, discharge to the waiting room for 2 hours, and order an elective chest radiograph
D.Perform an immediate diagnostic lumbar puncture to rule out subarachnoid hemorrhage
Explanation: In clinical OSCE stations evaluating acute chest pain, obtaining and interpreting a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) within 10 minutes of first medical contact is the primary quality benchmark to identify STEMI for emergent reperfusion. Simultaneous focused clinical assessment, continuous cardiac monitoring, peripheral IV access, and troponin testing are established simultaneously.
2In an OSCE simulation of Acute Cardiogenic Pulmonary Edema, a 66-year-old patient with ischemic cardiomyopathy presents in severe respiratory distress, sitting upright, diaphoretic, with bilateral pulmonary crackles up to the mid-zones, blood pressure 185/105 mmHg, heart rate 110 bpm, and SpO2 84% on room air. Which initial therapeutic combination should you execute immediately?
A.Position the patient seated upright with legs dangling, apply non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (CPAP/BiPAP), administer intravenous loop diuretic (Furosemide 40–80 mg IV), and initiate sublingual or IV Nitroglycerin infusion
B.Place the patient in Trendelenburg position and infuse 2,000 mL of 0.9% normal saline rapidly
C.Administer high-dose intravenous beta-blocker (Propranolol 5 mg IV push) and oral fluid bolus
D.Administer intramuscular epinephrine and perform an immediate pericardiocentesis
Explanation: In acute hypertensive cardiogenic pulmonary edema, immediate clinical management comprises: (1) Upright seated position to decrease venous return, (2) Non-invasive ventilation (CPAP 5–10 cm H2O) to recruit alveoli and reduce preload/afterload, (3) IV vasodilator (nitroglycerin) to decrease systemic vascular resistance and left ventricular afterload, and (4) IV loop diuretics (furosemide) for venodilation and subsequent diuresis.
3During a clinical simulation station on syncope, a 22-year-old female presents after a brief loss of consciousness while having blood drawn while standing. She describes a clear prodrome of warmth, lightheadedness, nausea, tunneling of vision, and pallor before slumping to the ground, with immediate spontaneous return of full consciousness within 15 seconds of assuming a recumbent position. Physical exam, orthostatic vitals, and 12-lead ECG are completely normal. What is the diagnosis and appropriate management?
A.Vasovagal (neurocardiogenic / reflex) syncope; reassure the patient, educate on recognizing prodromal symptoms, advise counter-pressure maneuvers (leg crossing, hand gripping), and avoid triggers without hospital admission
B.Ventricular tachycardia syncope; admit to ICU for immediate automated implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation
C.Subclavian steal syndrome; perform emergency bilateral carotid endarterectomy
D.Complex partial seizure; initiate lifelong oral carbamazepine
Explanation: Vasovagal (reflex) syncope is the most common cause of syncope in young healthy individuals. It is characterized by an identifiable situational trigger (venipuncture, prolonged standing, heat), classic prodromal autonomic symptoms (nausea, pallor, diaphoresis, tunnel vision), rapid recovery upon lying flat, and normal physical and ECG findings. Management is conservative: reassurance, avoidance of triggers, hydration, and physical counter-pressure maneuvers.
4In an OSCE emergency station, a 60-year-old male presents with blood pressure of 210/120 mmHg. He is alert, oriented, and completely asymptomatic with no headache, chest pain, dyspnea, visual changes, or focal neurological deficits. Fundoscopic exam, ECG, and serum creatinine are normal. How should you classify this clinical state and manage blood pressure?
A.Hypertensive Urgency (Emergencia vs Urgencia Hipertensiva); manage in a calm outpatient observation setting with oral antihypertensive medications (e.g., Captopril, Losartan, or Amlodipine), aiming for gradual blood pressure reduction over 24 to 48 hours
B.Hypertensive Emergency; administer continuous intravenous sodium nitroprusside infusion to acutely lower MAP by 60% within 15 minutes
C.Pheochromocytoma; perform immediate emergency bilateral adrenalectomy
D.Ischemic stroke; administer intravenous alteplase bolus immediately
Explanation: A Hypertensive Urgency is defined as severe blood pressure elevation (typically systolic >=180 or diastolic >=120 mmHg) WITHOUT evidence of acute target-organ damage (no encephalopathy, pulmonary edema, aortic dissection, acute coronary syndrome, or acute renal failure). It is treated safely with oral antihypertensive agents and gradual reduction over 24–48 hours; rapid parenteral blood pressure reduction is unnecessary and risks cerebral, myocardial, or renal hypoperfusion.
5You are evaluated on your initial bedside management of Septic Shock in a simulated 70-year-old male with urosepsis. His BP is 78/48 mmHg (MAP 58 mmHg), HR 122 bpm, RR 26 bpm, and blood lactate is 4.4 mmol/L. According to the Surviving Sepsis Campaign guidelines, which actions must be demonstrated within the 1-Hour Sepsis Bundle?
A.Measure serum lactate, obtain at least two sets of blood cultures prior to antibiotics, administer broad-spectrum IV antimicrobials within 1 hour, infuse 30 mL/kg of balanced crystalloid solution within 3 hours, and apply IV Norepinephrine if MAP remains <65 mmHg
B.Withhold all intravenous fluids, administer high-dose furosemide, and wait for 48-hour urine culture before starting antibiotics
C.Administer oral hydration and schedule an elective outpatient abdominal ultrasound
D.Immediately intubate and perform a diagnostic peritoneal lavage
Explanation: The 1-Hour Sepsis Bundle requires: (1) Measure blood lactate (remeasure if initial >2 mmol/L), (2) Obtain blood cultures prior to antibiotic administration, (3) Administer broad-spectrum intravenous antimicrobials within 1 hour, (4) Rapidly administer 30 mL/kg of crystalloid for hypotension or lactate >=4 mmol/L, and (5) Initiate vasopressors (Norepinephrine first-line) during or after fluid resuscitation to maintain MAP >=65 mmHg.
6During a clinical scenario of Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) management, a 21-year-old female with Type 1 Diabetes is admitted with glucose 480 mg/dL, arterial pH 7.15, HCO3- 10 mEq/L, and serum potassium 4.8 mEq/L. You initiate isotonic saline fluid resuscitation and continuous regular insulin at 0.1 U/kg/h. Four hours later, her capillary glucose drops to 220 mg/dL while her anion gap remains elevated at 18 mEq/L. What is the correct next step in IV fluid and insulin management?
A.Add 5% Dextrose (D5W or D5 in 0.45% NaCl) to the IV fluids while continuing regular insulin infusion to fully clear ketonemia and close the anion gap while preventing hypoglycemia
B.Stop the insulin infusion completely and discharge the patient on oral metformin
C.Increase the insulin infusion rate to 0.4 U/kg/h and administer 100 mL of IV 50% dextrose bolus
D.Administer 3 ampules of IV sodium bicarbonate and discontinue all monitoring
Explanation: In DKA management, when blood glucose drops below 200–250 mg/dL, 5% dextrose (D5W) must be added to the intravenous fluids while continuing the insulin infusion (titrated to 0.02–0.05 U/kg/h). This maintains blood glucose between 150–200 mg/dL while allowing continued insulin delivery to suppress lipolysis, clear ketoacidosis, and close the anion gap without precipitating hypoglycemia or cerebral edema.
7In an emergency simulation station, a 64-year-old dialysis patient presents with severe muscle weakness. Serum potassium is 7.6 mEq/L. The cardiac monitor shows widened QRS complexes merging into a sine-wave pattern. What is the immediate first-line medication you must order and administer stat?
A.Intravenous Calcium Gluconate 10% (10 mL IV over 2–3 minutes) under continuous ECG monitoring
B.Oral Sodium Polystyrene Sulfonate (Kayexalate) 30 g orally
C.Subcutaneous Regular Insulin 10 units without intravenous dextrose
D.Intravenous Furosemide 160 mg bolus
Explanation: Severe hyperkalemia with conduction abnormalities or sine-wave pattern is an immediate precursor to ventricular fibrillation or asystole. Intravenous calcium (10 mL of 10% calcium gluconate or calcium chloride) must be given immediately over 2–3 minutes to stabilize cardiac myocyte resting membrane potentials within 1–3 minutes. Once the membrane is stabilized, intracellular potassium shifting agents (insulin + dextrose, salbutamol) and elimination methods (dialysis) are initiated.
8A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency room with a severe acute asthma attack. She is sitting forward (tripod position), speaking in single words, with a respiratory rate of 34 bpm, heart rate of 128 bpm, pulsus paradoxus of 18 mmHg, and peak expiratory flow (PEF) of 38% predicted. What is the immediate first-line medical therapy to execute in this station?
A.Continuous nebulization of inhaled Salbutamol (SABA) combined with Ipratropium bromide (SAMA), high-flow oxygen targeting SpO2 93–95%, and immediate administration of systemic corticosteroids (IV Hydrocortisone 100–200 mg or oral Prednisone 50 mg)
B.Administer oral montelukast monotherapy and discharge home
C.Intramuscular penicillin G and oral cough suppressant
D.Immediate endotracheal intubation without any trial of bronchodilators
Explanation: In severe acute asthma exacerbation (PEF <50%, inability to speak in sentences, tachycardia, tachypnea, pulsus paradoxus >12 mmHg), immediate first-line therapy consists of: (1) Controlled oxygen to maintain SpO2 93–95%, (2) Repetitive or continuous nebulization of short-acting beta-2 agonist (Salbutamol) combined with short-acting anticholinergic (Ipratropium), and (3) Early systemic corticosteroids (oral prednisone 40–50 mg or IV hydrocortisone) within the first hour of emergency treatment.
9During a simulated ICU clinical station, you evaluate a 68-year-old male with severe COPD exacerbation. Arterial blood gases on 28% Venturi mask show: pH 7.28, PaCO2 68 mmHg, PaO2 55 mmHg, and HCO3- 31 mEq/L. He is tachypneic at 28 bpm with accessory muscle use, but is alert and able to protect his airway without vomiting. What is the evidence-based ventilatory support modality of choice?
A.Non-Invasive Positive Pressure Ventilation (NIPPV / BiPAP) using an oronasal mask, setting IPAP 10–12 cm H2O and EPAP 4–5 cm H2O, monitoring arterial blood gases at 1–2 hours
B.Immediate invasive endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation without attempting non-invasive ventilation
C.High-flow 100% non-rebreather oxygen mask at 15 L/min without ventilatory pressure support
D.Hyperbaric oxygen chamber therapy
Explanation: Non-Invasive Positive Pressure Ventilation (NIPPV/BiPAP) is the gold standard first-line ventilatory support for acute hypercapnic respiratory acidosis (pH <7.35, PaCO2 >45 mmHg) in acute COPD exacerbations. It reduces the work of breathing, decreases intubation rates by >60%, shortens hospital length of stay, and significantly reduces in-hospital mortality.
10In an Upper GI Bleeding clinical management station, a 52-year-old male with suspected bleeding peptic ulcer disease is resuscitated with IV crystalloids and started on high-dose IV omeprazole. Urgent upper endoscopy reveals a 1.5 cm duodenal bulb ulcer with an actively spurting arterial vessel (Forrest Ia). What is the standard endoscopic dual-therapy hemostatic intervention to demonstrate?
A.Dual endoscopic hemostasis combining targeted injection therapy (dilute epinephrine 1:10,000) with a thermal contact modality (bipolar electrocoagulation or heater probe) or mechanical clips (hemoclips)
B.Topical iced saline gastric lavage alone without direct ulcer intervention
C.Argon plasma coagulation of the normal gastric antrum only
D.Immediate closure of the endoscope and transfer for emergency total gastrectomy without attempting endoscopic therapy
Explanation: For high-risk bleeding peptic ulcers (Forrest Ia active spurting, Forrest Ib active oozing, and Forrest IIa non-bleeding visible vessel), dual endoscopic therapy is superior to monotherapy. It combines targeted epinephrine injection (to promote local vasoconstriction and tamponade) with either a thermal coagulation modality or mechanical hemoclips to achieve definitive arterial vessel thrombosis and prevent rebleeding.

About the EUNACOM Sección Práctica Exam

The EUNACOM Sección Práctica (EUNACOM-SP) is the clinical half of Chile's national medical examination under Ley 20.261. Its stated objective is to determine whether the candidate holds the basic clinical competencies needed to see patients as a general practitioner in the Chilean health system. ASOFAMECH delegates delivery to its accredited member schools, which run four stages — Medicina Interna, Pediatría, Obstetricia-ginecología and Cirugía. Format and assessment disclosure: this is a performance examination, not a written one. Under the Normativa in force since 1 January 2026 every stage is delivered as an Examen Clínico Objetivo Estandarizado (ECOE), sat strictly in person, and results are reported only as approved or failed. This practice bank is an English-language multiple-choice study adaptation: it can teach the clinical reasoning, safety rules, sequencing and interpretation the stations reward, but it cannot simulate an ECOE and cannot certify a practical skill. The real examination is conducted in Spanish; Chilean statutes, drug regimens and programme names are kept in Spanish so they match the official sources.

Assessment

Four stages, sat strictly in person and never simultaneously, in the order set by the examining school. ASOFAMECH assigns the school; the candidate cannot request one. Since 1 January 2026 every stage is delivered in ECOE format. The clinical situations and procedures assessed are those in the Perfil de Conocimientos, and examiners may additionally assess communication, dignity and confidentiality, hygiene and safety, and patients' rights. The candidate is told the result of each stage within seven days, and no more than three months may pass between the first and last stage.

Time Limit

not-published — ASOFAMECH publishes no station count or per-station timing for the ECOE

Passing Score

All four stages must be passed and simultaneously valid (Normativa art. 3.5 and 7.8); each stage is reported only as approved or failed, and no numeric cut score is published

Exam Fee

$720.000 CLP (ASOFAMECH (Asociación de Facultades de Medicina de Chile) on behalf of MINSAL under Ley 20.261)

EUNACOM Sección Práctica Exam Content Outline

1 of 4 mandatory stages

Etapa Medicina Interna

Adult inpatient and outpatient clinical evaluation, acute chest pain triage and ECG interpretation, acute heart failure and pulmonary edema stabilization, severe asthma/COPD exacerbation, acute kidney injury and electrolyte disturbance, hypertensive urgency vs emergency, sepsis resuscitation bundle, diabetic ketoacidosis management, and structured medical communication.

1 of 4 mandatory stages

Etapa Cirugía

Acute surgical abdomen clinical decision-making (acute appendicitis, acute cholecystitis, bowel obstruction, perforated ulcer), ATLS primary survey (Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure), tension pneumothorax needle decompression and chest tube placement safety, hemorrhagic shock resuscitation, wound debridement and suture technique, thermal burn surface calculation and fluid formulas, and post-operative complication management.

1 of 4 mandatory stages

Etapa Pediatría

Pediatric emergency triage using the Pediatric Assessment Triangle (PAT), acute respiratory distress scoring (Tal score for bronchiolitis, Wood-Downes score for asthma), acute gastroenteritis and WHO dehydration plans (Plan A oral, Plan B oral rehydration solution, Plan C IV fluid boluses), neonatal resuscitation algorithm (NRP), fever without a source in infants, febrile seizure evaluation, and developmental milestone assessment.

1 of 4 mandatory stages

Etapa Obstetricia-ginecología

Obstetric triage and partogram monitoring, active management of the third stage of labor (AMTSL with oxytocin), postpartum hemorrhage stepwise management (uterine massage, uterotonics, balloon tamponade), emergency preeclampsia stabilization (Zuspan magnesium sulfate regimen and labetalol/nifedipine), vaginal speculum examination and cervical swab technique, and emergency contraception counseling.

How to Pass the EUNACOM Sección Práctica Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: All four stages must be passed and simultaneously valid (Normativa art. 3.5 and 7.8); each stage is reported only as approved or failed, and no numeric cut score is published
  • Assessment: Four stages, sat strictly in person and never simultaneously, in the order set by the examining school. ASOFAMECH assigns the school; the candidate cannot request one. Since 1 January 2026 every stage is delivered in ECOE format. The clinical situations and procedures assessed are those in the Perfil de Conocimientos, and examiners may additionally assess communication, dignity and confidentiality, hygiene and safety, and patients' rights. The candidate is told the result of each stage within seven days, and no more than three months may pass between the first and last stage.
  • Time limit: not-published — ASOFAMECH publishes no station count or per-station timing for the ECOE
  • Exam fee: $720.000 CLP

Keys to Passing

  • Work through all 100 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

EUNACOM Sección Práctica Study Tips from Top Performers

1Structure your clinical case presentation systematically: chief complaint, history of present illness, relevant past medical history, focused physical examination, prioritized differential diagnosis, and immediate diagnostic/therapeutic plan.
2Master acute emergency algorithms: ATLS primary ABCDE survey for trauma, PALS pediatric assessment triangle, and NRP neonatal resuscitation sequence.
3Practice step-by-step management of postpartum hemorrhage (the 4 Ts: Tone, Tissue, Trauma, Thrombin) and exact dosing of uterotonic agents (oxytocin, methylergonovine, misoprostol).
4Memorize the precise Zuspan magnesium sulfate protocol for severe preeclampsia: 4g IV loading dose over 15-20 min followed by 1g/h IV continuous infusion, monitoring deep tendon reflexes, respiratory rate, and urine output.
5Know the clinical grading systems by heart: Tal score for acute infant bronchiolitis, Alvarado score for appendicitis, and Glasgow Coma Scale.
6Focus on patient safety and communication: always state hand hygiene, informed consent, explanation of procedures to the patient/family, and verification of allergies.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the EUNACOM Sección Práctica (EUNACOM-SP)?

The EUNACOM-SP is the practical clinical half of Chile's national medical examination. Its objective is to establish whether the candidate has the basic clinical competencies to see patients as a general practitioner in the Chilean health system. It consists of four stages — Medicina Interna, Pediatría, Obstetricia-ginecología and Cirugía — each delivered as an Examen Clínico Objetivo Estandarizado (ECOE) at an accredited ASOFAMECH member school.

Who must take the EUNACOM Sección Práctica?

Doctors who cannot homologate it. Graduates and title-holders of accredited Chilean medical schools have it homologated automatically when they pass the theoretical section, without applying. Doctors qualified in a country with a bilateral degree-recognition treaty — Argentina, Brazil, Colombia, Ecuador, Spain, the United Kingdom and Uruguay — and those who completed revalidation or recognition at the Universidad de Chile may apply for homologation, which is not automatic and costs $155.000 CLP. Everyone else sits all four stages.

What are the eligibility requirements for taking the practical exam?

A pass in the EUNACOM Sección Teórica that is still valid — theoretical results last two years from the sitting date. Once registered, ASOFAMECH has 45 days to propose dates and an examining school; the candidate then has three working days to accept or reject them, may reject one proposal only, and a second rejection cancels the registration.

How is the practical exam scored and passed?

Each stage is assessed against the ECOE minimum standards and reported only as approved or failed — ASOFAMECH publishes no numeric cut score and no weighting between stages. All four must be passed and simultaneously valid. A passed stage stays valid for two years. Failing one stage does not stop the candidate sitting the remaining ones, but on re-registration every failed stage plus any expired passed stage must be enrolled again, and if the theoretical result had been extended to finish the process, that extension is cancelled and the theoretical section must be passed again.

How much does the practical exam cost?

The first registration must cover all four stages and costs $720.000 CLP. On re-registration, two or three stages cost $655.000 CLP and a single stage $470.000 CLP. Homologating the section instead of sitting it costs $155.000 CLP. These fees have been in force since 1 July 2025 and are reviewed annually.

How does this practice bank adapt a practical ECOE examination?

It does not simulate one, and passing it certifies nothing. The official assessment is an in-person clinical performance examination, so this bank instead uses case vignettes to rehearse the knowledge an ECOE station rewards: the diagnostic decision, the correct sequence, the safety rule, the interpretation of a finding, and the communication choice. Skills that only exist in performance — actually examining a patient, handling instruments, running a real consultation — cannot be practised here.

How long do I have to complete all four stages?

Three months. Normativa art. 8.11 caps the time between the start of the first stage and the end of the last at three months. Separately, the examining school must report each stage result within seven days and send the final record to ASOFAMECH within 10 working days of the last stage.