100+ Free Facharzt FMH Radiologie Practice Questions

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: Facharzt FMH Radiologie Exam

Part 1 & 2

Exam Format

SIWF / SGR-SSR Regulations

5 Years

Postgraduate Training

SIWF Weiterbildungsprogramm

4 Days Total

Exam Duration (Part 1 + 2)

SGR-SSR Examination Commission

Lifetime

FMH Title Validity

Swiss Medical Association (FMH)

100

Practice Questions

OpenExamPrep

Core Imaging Domains

SIWF / ESR Curriculum

The Facharzt FMH Radiologie credential certifies specialist diagnostic radiologists in Switzerland through SIWF and SGR-SSR. Examination assessment comprises the theoretical Part 1 (physics, anatomy, technique) and clinical Part 2 (written cases and oral film reading), covering chest, abdominal, neuro, MSK, breast, urogenital, pediatric, and interventional imaging.

Sample Facharzt FMH Radiologie Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your Facharzt FMH Radiologie exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 68-year-old man presents with progressive exertional dyspnea and a persistent non-productive cough. High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) of the chest reveals bilateral, subpleural, and basal-predominant reticular opacities associated with subpleural honeycombing and peripheral traction bronchiectasis. There are no upper-zone predominant lesions, extensive ground-glass opacities, or air trapping. According to the international ATS/ERS/JRS/ALAT consensus guidelines, which HRCT pattern is demonstrated?

A.Definite Usual Interstitial Pneumonia (UIP) pattern

B.Probable Nonspecific Interstitial Pneumonia (NSIP) pattern

C.Chronic Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis (CHP) pattern

D.Respiratory Bronchiolitis-associated Interstitial Lung Disease (RB-ILD)

Explanation: The HRCT findings of subpleural, basal-predominant reticular abnormalities with classic honeycombing (clustered cystic airspaces with thick walls), traction bronchiectasis, and the absence of inconsistent features (such as upper-lobe predominance, extensive ground glass, or mosaic attenuation) meet the strict international consensus criteria for a definite Usual Interstitial Pneumonia (UIP) pattern, which in the appropriate clinical setting is diagnostic of Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis (IPF) without requiring surgical lung biopsy.

2A 54-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with acute pleuritic chest pain, tachycardia (115 bpm), and hypoxemia. Computed tomography pulmonary angiography (CTPA) confirms acute bilateral pulmonary emboli in the main pulmonary arteries. On the axial 4-chamber reconstructed views, the right ventricular (RV) internal diameter measures 48 mm, while the left ventricular (LV) internal diameter measures 36 mm. Contrast reflux into the inferior vena cava and flattening of the interventricular septum are also noted. What is the clinical significance of these CTPA findings?

A.These findings are non-specific and indicate chronic pulmonary hypertension rather than acute hemodynamic compromise

B.They represent acute right ventricular strain (RV/LV ratio > 1.0), which stratifies the patient into an intermediate- or high-risk category for adverse clinical outcomes

C.They confirm left-sided diastolic heart failure secondary to systemic fluid overload

D.They indicate an acute patent foramen ovale (PFO) shunt requiring urgent surgical intervention

Explanation: On CTPA, an RV/LV diameter ratio > 1.0 (measured at the maximal end-diastolic dimension on axial 4-chamber views), flattening or leftward bowing of the interventricular septum, and contrast reflux into the inferior vena cava and hepatic veins are direct imaging biomarkers of acute right ventricular strain and dysfunction. In acute pulmonary embolism, CT-defined RV dysfunction stratifies patients into intermediate- or high-risk mortality categories, guiding escalation to intensive monitoring, systemic anticoagulation, or catheter-directed/systemic thrombolysis.

3A 64-year-old male smoker undergoes staging CT and PET/CT for a biopsy-proven non-small cell lung cancer. The primary tumor is a 4.2 cm mass in the right upper lobe. Staging imaging demonstrates a separate 1.5 cm malignant nodule in the right lower lobe, as well as ipsilateral mediastinal (station 4R) and subcarinal (station 7) lymph nodes with avid FDG uptake (SUVmax 8.5). No distant metastases or contralateral nodes are detected. According to the IASLC/UICC TNM 8th edition staging system, what is the correct TNM stage for this patient?

A.T2b N1 M0 (Stage IIB)

B.T3 N2 M0 (Stage IIIA)

C.T4 N2 M0 (Stage IIIB)

D.T4 N3 M1a (Stage IVA)

Explanation: Under the IASLC/UICC TNM 8th edition lung cancer staging system: a separate tumor nodule in a different ipsilateral lobe (e.g., right upper lobe primary with a separate right lower lobe nodule) is classified as T4 (a separate nodule in the same lobe would be T3). Involvement of ipsilateral mediastinal and subcarinal lymph nodes (stations 4R and 7) corresponds to N2 disease. With no distant metastases (M0), T4 N2 M0 translates to Stage IIIB non-small cell lung cancer.

4A 72-year-old male with long-standing poorly controlled hypertension presents to the emergency department with sudden-onset, severe, tearing interscapular back pain. Contrast-enhanced CT angiography (CTA) of the chest and abdomen reveals a hyperdense crescentic thickening of the aortic wall on non-contrast CT that does not enhance on contrast-enhanced phases, extending from distal to the origin of the left subclavian artery down to the celiac axis. There is no intimal flap or false lumen flow, and all branch vessels are widely patent. What is the diagnosis and appropriate initial management strategy according to international thoracic aortic guidelines?

A.Acute Stanford Type A aortic dissection requiring emergent open surgical ascending aortic graft replacement

B.Aortitis secondary to giant cell arteritis requiring immediate high-dose intravenous pulsed methylprednisolone

C.Ruptured thoracic aortic aneurysm requiring immediate hybrid open debranching

D.Acute Stanford Type B aortic intramural hematoma (IMH); initial management is medical therapy with intravenous beta-blockers and strict blood pressure control, reserving TEVAR for complications

Explanation: The CT findings of non-enhancing, crescentic wall thickening on post-contrast images with hyperattenuation on non-contrast CT in the descending thoracic aorta without a visible intimal flap or double lumen represent an acute intramural hematoma (IMH), classified as Stanford Type B because it originates distal to the left subclavian artery. In uncomplicated Type B acute aortic syndromes without malperfusion, hemodynamic instability, or persistent refractory pain, initial management consists of medical therapy (intravenous beta-blockers to achieve a systolic BP <120 mmHg and HR <60 bpm), reserving thoracic endovascular aortic repair (TEVAR) for complicated cases.

5A 58-year-old man with a history of anterior ST-elevation myocardial infarction 6 months ago undergoes cardiac magnetic resonance (CMR) imaging to evaluate myocardial viability prior to revascularization. Late gadolinium enhancement (LGE) imaging demonstrates transmural enhancement involving >75% of the wall thickness in the mid-to-apical anterior and anteroseptal segments. How does this finding translate into the likelihood of functional myocardial recovery following coronary revascularization?

A.The likelihood of functional recovery is extremely low (<10-15%), as >75% transmural LGE reflects irreversible scar tissue and complete loss of functional reserve

B.The likelihood of recovery is high (>80%), because transmural LGE indicates hyperemic viable myocardium with preserved metabolic reserve

C.Transmural LGE indicates reversible myocardial stunning that will rapidly normalize within 48 hours post-angioplasty

D.The degree of LGE transmurality cannot predict functional recovery; only end-diastolic wall thickness <5.5 mm indicates non-viability

Explanation: In cardiac MRI viability assessment (Kim et al. landmark study), the transmural extent of Late Gadolinium Enhancement (LGE) directly correlates with the probability of functional improvement after revascularization. Segments with 0% LGE have an ~80% chance of functional recovery, 1-25% LGE has ~60%, 26-50% has ~40%, 51-75% has ~10%, and segments with >75% transmural LGE have an extremely low probability (<5-10%) of functional improvement due to dense, irreversible fibrous replacement scar.

6A 26-year-old asymptomatic woman undergoes a routine pre-employment chest radiograph that reveals a well-circumscribed anterior mediastinal mass. Contrast-enhanced chest CT confirms a 6 cm heterogeneous anterior mediastinal mass containing areas of fat attenuation (-60 HU), soft tissue elements, and coarse, well-formed calcific/ossified structures. The lesion does not invade adjacent vascular structures or the pericardium. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A.Thymoma (WHO Type B2)

B.Mature cystic teratoma (benign germ cell tumor)

C.Mediastinal seminoma

D.Hodgkin lymphoma (nodular sclerosis subtype)

Explanation: Mature cystic teratomas (benign germ cell tumors) are the most common mediastinal germ cell tumors and predominantly occur in young adults in the anterior mediastinum. The pathognomonic CT features include a well-defined, heterogeneous encapsulated mass containing components of all three germ cell layers: macroscopic fat attenuation (-40 to -100 HU), fluid/cystic areas, soft tissue attenuation, and calcification or well-formed teeth/bones in over 50% of cases.

7A 61-year-old man with atypical angina undergoes prospective ECG-gated coronary computed tomography angiography (CCTA). Analysis of the coronary tree demonstrates a mixed calcified and non-calcified plaque in the proximal left anterior descending (LAD) artery causing 75% luminal diameter narrowing. The left main, circumflex, and right coronary arteries show only mild wall irregularities (<25% stenosis). According to the updated CAD-RADS 2.0 (Coronary Artery Disease - Reporting and Data System) classification, what is the CAD-RADS score and standard management recommendation?

A.CAD-RADS 2 (Mild stenosis); optimal medical therapy and risk factor modification alone

B.CAD-RADS 3 (Moderate stenosis); stress functional testing or CCTA-derived fractional flow reserve (FFR-CT)

C.CAD-RADS 4A (Severe stenosis in 1-2 vessels); invasive coronary angiography (ICA) or functional testing (FFR-CT / stress imaging) is recommended

D.CAD-RADS 5 (Total occlusion); emergent surgical coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG)

Explanation: Under CAD-RADS 2.0: Category 4A represents severe stenosis (70-99% luminal diameter stenosis) in 1 or 2 coronary arteries (excluding the left main). The recommended clinical management for CAD-RADS 4A is invasive coronary angiography (ICA) or non-invasive functional assessment (such as stress myocardial perfusion imaging or FFR-CT) to guide target vessel revascularization along with intensive guideline-directed medical therapy.

8A 38-year-old male with a history of heavy smoking presents with progressive cough and hypoxemia. High-resolution CT of the chest demonstrates diffuse, sharply demarcated areas of ground-glass opacity with superimposed smooth thickening of the interlobular and intralobular septa, creating a striking 'crazy-paving' pattern with geographic distribution. Bronchoalveolar lavage returns milky, lipoproteinaceous material that stains positive with periodic acid-Schiff (PAS). What is the underlying diagnosis?

A.Pulmonary veno-occlusive disease (PVOD)

B.Desquamative interstitial pneumonia (DIP)

C.Hypereosinophilic syndrome with pulmonary infiltrates

D.Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis (PAP)

Explanation: The 'crazy-paving' pattern on HRCT consists of ground-glass attenuation with superimposed thickened interlobular septa and intralobular lines. While crazy-paving can occur in acute conditions (ARDS, severe viral pneumonia, cardiogenic edema), when seen chronically with sharply demarcated geographic margins and milky, PAS-positive bronchoalveolar fluid (phospholipid/surfactant accumulation due to GM-CSF autoantibodies), it is classical for Pulmonary Alveolar Proteinosis (PAP).

9A 52-year-old pigeon fancier presents with chronic cough, exertional shortness of breath, and fatigue. Chest HRCT reveals a combination of patchy ground-glass opacities, areas of normal lung attenuation, and sharply defined low-attenuation lobules with reduced vascularity that become more pronounced on expiratory imaging (air trapping). This constellation of three distinct lung attenuations on inspiratory HRCT is known as the 'three-density sign' (or 'headcheese sign'). Which condition is this sign highly specific for?

A.Fibrotic Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis (HP)

B.Pulmonary Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis (PLCH)

C.Lymphangioleiomyomatosis (LAM)

D.Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis (IPF)

Explanation: The 'three-density sign' (historically called the 'headcheese sign') on inspiratory HRCT is defined by the simultaneous presence of three distinct lung densities: 1) ground-glass opacity (infiltrative alveolitis/interstitial disease), 2) normal lung parenchyma, and 3) low-attenuation areas of air-trapping/hypoperfusion (obstructive small airways disease). This combination is highly specific for chronic/fibrotic Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis (HP).

10A 28-year-old male presents with acute retrosternal chest pain, low-grade fever, and elevated high-sensitivity cardiac troponin T following a viral prodrome. Coronary angiography reveals normal coronary arteries. Cardiac magnetic resonance (CMR) is performed. According to the 2018 Updated Lake Louise Criteria for the diagnosis of acute myocardial inflammation (myocarditis), which combination of CMR findings provides the highest diagnostic sensitivity and specificity?

A.Reduced left ventricular ejection fraction (<45%) combined with pericardial effusion alone

B.At least one T1-based marker (elevated native myocardial T1, increased extracellular volume [ECV], or non-ischemic late gadolinium enhancement) AND at least one T2-based marker (elevated native myocardial T2 or high T2 signal intensity ratio)

C.Subendocardial late gadolinium enhancement following a single coronary artery distribution combined with focal wall motion abnormalities

D.Elevated myocardial T2 relaxation time alone without T1-mapping or LGE abnormalities

Explanation: According to the 2018 Updated Lake Louise Criteria, a CMR study is diagnostic of acute myocarditis when at least one T1-based criterion (elevated myocardial native T1 relaxation time, increased extracellular volume fraction [ECV], or non-ischemic LGE in a subepicardial/mid-wall patchy pattern) is present in combination with at least one T2-based criterion (elevated myocardial native T2 relaxation time or increased myocardial T2 signal intensity ratio representing myocardial edema).

About the Facharzt FMH Radiologie Exam

The Facharzt FMH für Radiologie (Specialist in Radiology FMH) is the Swiss Federal specialist title granting full independent practice rights in diagnostic and interventional radiology across Switzerland. Governed by the SIWF (Swiss Institute for Postgraduate and Continuous Medical Training) and the SGR-SSR (Swiss Society of Radiology), board qualification requires passing the two-part Swiss Radiology Examination (Theoretical Part 1 and Clinical Part 2 written and oral components), completing at least 5 years of accredited postgraduate training, and fulfilling all logbook requirements. The syllabus covers chest and cardiovascular imaging, abdominal and gastrointestinal radiology, neuroradiology and head/neck, musculoskeletal imaging, breast imaging and mammography (BI-RADS), urogenital imaging (PI-RADS, Bosniak), pediatric radiology, basic interventional radiology, radiation physics, radiation biology, radiation protection, and contrast media safety. Note on format and language: While the official SGR-SSR examinations are conducted in Switzerland in national languages (German/French) or English and include extensive multi-case oral film reading, this practice bank is an English-language multiple-choice study adaptation created by OpenExamPrep—not an official SGR-SSR/EBR examination release—specifically designed to train high-yield clinical image analysis, structured classification systems (BI-RADS, PI-RADS, LI-RADS, CAD-RADS, Bosniak, ASPECTS), differential diagnosis, and radiation/contrast safety principles.

Assessment

Two-part qualifying examination: 1) Part 1 (Theoretical): A 1-day examination comprising five multiple-choice blocks covering radiation physics, radiation biology, technical apparatus, cross-sectional anatomy, scientific theory, and medical law. 2) Part 2 (Clinical): A 3-day examination comprising a written multiple-choice and case-reporting section followed by a structured oral-practical film-reading examination across clinical subspecialties.

Time Limit

Part 1: 1 day (multiple MCQ sessions totaling ~6 hours); Part 2: 3 days (written case interpretation sessions plus ~60–90 minutes structured oral examination)

Passing Score

Criterion-referenced passing score on theoretical Part 1 and structured passing evaluations across all written reporting and oral film-reading stations in Part 2

Exam Fee

SGR-SSR Part 1 fee CHF 800–1,200; SGR-SSR Part 2 fee CHF 1,800–2,500; SIWF FMH Title Application fee CHF 1,000–2,500 (Schweizerisches Institut für ärztliche Weiter- und Fortbildung (SIWF / FMH) and Schweizerische Gesellschaft für Radiologie (SGR-SSR))

Facharzt FMH Radiologie Exam Content Outline

16%

Chest & Cardiovascular Imaging

High-resolution CT (HRCT) of interstitial lung diseases (UIP, NSIP, sarcoidosis, hypersensitivity pneumonitis), TNM 8th/9th edition lung cancer staging, pulmonary embolism (RV/LV ratio), acute aortic syndromes (dissection Stanford A/B, intramural hematoma, penetrating ulcer), mediastinal compartments, cardiac MRI (ischemic vs non-ischemic late gadolinium enhancement, Lake Louise myocarditis criteria), and coronary CTA (CAD-RADS 2.0).

18%

Abdominal & Gastrointestinal Imaging

Liver imaging (LI-RADS v2018 criteria for HCC, benign vs malignant hepatic masses on multiphase CT/MRI, diffuse liver disease), biliary and pancreatic imaging (Revised Atlanta classification of pancreatitis, pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma resectability, IPMN and cystic lesions, MRCP), acute abdomen (appendicitis, diverticulitis Hinchey classification, bowel obstruction and closed-loop ischemia), and inflammatory bowel disease (MR enterography).

18%

Neuroradiology & Head/Neck Imaging

Acute ischemic stroke imaging (ASPECTS score, CT/MR perfusion penumbra and core mismatch, collateral grading), intracranial hemorrhage (ICH, subarachnoid hemorrhage, trauma), CNS neoplasms (2021 WHO classification, glioblastoma, IDH/1p19q markers, meningioma, metastases), demyelinating disease (McDonald 2017 criteria, NMOSD, MOGAD), dementia rating scales (Fazekas, MTA, GCA), spine trauma/degenerative disease (TLICS, Pfirrmann), and neck space pathology (EU-TIRADS, cervical adenopathy).

14%

Musculoskeletal Imaging (MSK)

Joint MRI (knee meniscus and cruciate ligament tears, shoulder rotator cuff and labral pathology, hip femoroacetabular impingement FAI and avascular necrosis AVN), musculoskeletal oncology (Lodwick classification of bone destruction, osteoid vs chondroid matrix, aggressive periosteal reactions), inflammatory and degenerative arthropathies (rheumatoid arthritis, seronegative spondyloarthropathies, gout DECT), and trauma/fracture classifications (Salter-Harris).

12%

Breast Imaging & Mammography

ACR BI-RADS 5th Edition lexicon and management categories (0 through 6), mammographic calcification morphology and distribution, digital breast tomosynthesis (DBT), breast density classification (A through D), dynamic contrast-enhanced (DCE) breast MRI kinetics (Type I, II, III curves) and high-risk screening indications, and ultrasound-guided/stereotactic breast intervention principles.

12%

Urogenital & Pelvic Imaging

Multiparametric prostate MRI (PI-RADS v2.1 scoring in peripheral and transition zones, extraprostatic extension), renal masses (Bosniak classification v2019 for cystic lesions, solid RCC subtypes), adrenal imaging (CT washout protocols, chemical shift MRI), and gynecologic pelvis (O-RADS ultrasound/MRI for adnexal lesions, FIGO staging of endometrial/cervical cancer, deep infiltrating endometriosis MRI protocol).

10%

Pediatric Radiology, Interventional Radiology & Radiation Physics/Safety

Pediatric gastrointestinal and neonatal emergencies (necrotizing enterocolitis Bell staging, hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, intussusception, malrotation/volvulus), developmental dysplasia of the hip (Graf ultrasound), interventional radiology fundamentals (transcatheter embolization, TIPS, IVC filters, image-guided biopsy/ablation), radiation protection (ALARA, DRLs, stochastic vs deterministic effects), CT physics/DECT, MRI safety (SAR, spatial gradients), and contrast media safety (PC-AKI/CI-AKI, NSF, severe reaction management).

How to Pass the Facharzt FMH Radiologie Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: Criterion-referenced passing score on theoretical Part 1 and structured passing evaluations across all written reporting and oral film-reading stations in Part 2
Assessment: Two-part qualifying examination: 1) Part 1 (Theoretical): A 1-day examination comprising five multiple-choice blocks covering radiation physics, radiation biology, technical apparatus, cross-sectional anatomy, scientific theory, and medical law. 2) Part 2 (Clinical): A 3-day examination comprising a written multiple-choice and case-reporting section followed by a structured oral-practical film-reading examination across clinical subspecialties.
Time limit: Part 1: 1 day (multiple MCQ sessions totaling ~6 hours); Part 2: 3 days (written case interpretation sessions plus ~60–90 minutes structured oral examination)
Exam fee: SGR-SSR Part 1 fee CHF 800–1,200; SGR-SSR Part 2 fee CHF 1,800–2,500; SIWF FMH Title Application fee CHF 1,000–2,500

Keys to Passing

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Facharzt FMH Radiologie Study Tips from Top Performers

1Master Structured Reporting Lexicons: Memorize exact management recommendations and feature criteria for PI-RADS v2.1 (dominant sequences for PZ vs TZ), LI-RADS v2018 (APHE, washout, capsule, threshold growth), Bosniak v2019 (wall thickening, septa, enhancement), and BI-RADS (calcification morphology, kinetic curves).

2Understand Acute Stroke & Neurovascular Protocols: Be fluent in calculating ASPECTS scores on non-contrast CT, identifying CTA source data hyperdense vessel signs, recognizing CT/MR perfusion core vs penumbra mismatches (DEFUSE-3 / DAWN criteria), and distinguishing acute intracranial hemorrhages.

3Review Interstitial Lung Disease HRCT Patterns: Know the pathognomonic HRCT criteria for Usual Interstitial Pneumonia (UIP: subpleural, basal predominance, honeycombing, traction bronchiectasis) vs Nonspecific Interstitial Pneumonia (NSIP: subpleural sparing, ground glass) and Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis (three-density sign / headcheese sign).

4Memorize Contrast Safety & Radiation Protection Rules: Know the KDIGO definition of post-contrast acute kidney injury (PC-AKI), eGFR thresholds (<30 mL/min/1.73m2 for IV iodinated contrast precautions), linear vs macrocyclic gadolinium agents and Nephrogenic Systemic Fibrosis (NSF) risk categories, and first-line treatment for acute anaphylactoid contrast reactions (IM epinephrine 0.5 mg 1:1,000).

5Analyze Multiphase Liver & Pancreatic Dynamics: Differentiate liver hemangiomas (peripheral nodular puddling with progressive centripetal fill-in), focal nodular hyperplasia (FNH: hypervascular arterial phase, central scar hyperintense on T2/delayed phase, T2*-hepatobiliary uptake on Gd-EOB-DTPA), and hepatic adenomas (HNF1a signal drop on out-of-phase MRI, inflammatory adenoma atoll sign, beta-catenin high malignancy risk).

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the Facharzt FMH für Radiologie title?

The Facharzt FMH für Radiologie is the federally recognized medical specialist title awarded by SIWF / FMH upon completion of at least 5 years of accredited postgraduate training in diagnostic radiology, passing both Part 1 (theoretical) and Part 2 (clinical written and oral) examinations of the SGR-SSR, and meeting all logbook requirements.

How is the Swiss Radiology specialist examination structured?

The examination is divided into two distinct parts: 1) Part 1 (Theoretical), a 1-day examination covering radiation physics, radiation biology, imaging apparatus, cross-sectional anatomy, scientific principles, and medical law. 2) Part 2 (Clinical), a 3-day examination consisting of a written multiple-choice and case-reporting section followed by structured oral-practical film-reading stations evaluating multi-subspecialty diagnostic competence.

When can Swiss radiology residents sit the examinations?

Residents are recommended to take the theoretical Part 1 examination during their 1st or 2nd year of postgraduate training. Passing Part 1 is a prerequisite for registering for the clinical Part 2 examination, which is typically taken during the 5th (final) year of residency.

What is the role of the European Diploma in Radiology (EDiR) in Switzerland?

The European Diploma in Radiology (EDiR), awarded by the European Board of Radiology (EBR), is an internationally recognized benchmark qualification aligned with the European Training Curriculum for Radiology. While taking the SGR-SSR examinations is mandatory for the Swiss FMH title, EDiR certification is highly regarded and serves as a valuable supplementary credential for Swiss trainees and international mobility.

What structured reporting systems are essential for the board examination?

Candidates must be thoroughly proficient in standardized radiologic lexicons and classification systems, including BI-RADS 5th ed (breast), PI-RADS v2.1 (prostate), LI-RADS v2018 (liver), Bosniak v2019 (cystic renal masses), CAD-RADS 2.0 (coronary CTA), O-RADS (ovarian/adnexal), ASPECTS (acute stroke), and the Revised Atlanta Classification (acute pancreatitis).

Why is this practice bank presented in English?

English is the primary scientific and international lingua franca of radiology, including the European Diploma in Radiology (EDiR) curriculum and core radiological journals (Radiology, European Radiology). This question bank adapts SIWF and SGR-SSR curriculum standards into 100 high-yield English-language questions to facilitate comprehensive board preparation.

100+ Free Facharzt FMH Radiologie Practice Questions

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