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Key Facts: Schwerpunkt Klinische Notfallmedizin SGNOR Exam

SGNOR ISP

Subspecialty Qualification

SIWF / SGNOR Weiterbildungsprogramm

Oral + OSCE

Exam Format

Interdisziplinäre Prüfungskommission

2–3 Years

ED Training Required

SGNOR Curriculum Requirements

60–90 min

Oral Exam Duration

SGNOR Regulations

Lifetime

Title Validity

Swiss Medical Association (FMH)

100

Practice Questions

OpenExamPrep

The Schwerpunkt Klinische Notfallmedizin SGNOR is the Swiss postgraduate interdisciplinary subspecialty credential in clinical emergency medicine governed by SGNOR and SIWF/FMH. The official examination comprises oral and practical simulation stations evaluating acute resuscitation, trauma, cardiovascular emergencies, toxicology, and point-of-care ultrasound.

Sample Schwerpunkt Klinische Notfallmedizin SGNOR Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your Schwerpunkt Klinische Notfallmedizin SGNOR exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 58-year-old man collapses in the emergency department waiting room. The monitor reveals ventricular fibrillation (VF). High-quality CPR is initiated immediately, and he receives a first biphasic defibrillation shock (200 J), followed by 2 minutes of CPR and a second shock (200 J). At the third rhythm check, VF persists, and a third shock is delivered. In accordance with European Resuscitation Council (ERC) Advanced Life Support guidelines, which pharmacological intervention should be administered immediately after the third shock during active CPR?

A.Amiodarone 300 mg IV/IO bolus plus Adrenaline (epinephrine) 1 mg IV/IO

B.Adrenaline (epinephrine) 1 mg IV/IO only, withholding antiarrhythmics until after the fifth shock

C.Lidocaine 300 mg IV/IO bolus as first-line monotherapy without adrenaline

D.Sodium bicarbonate 50 mmol IV/IO plus Magnesium sulfate 2 g IV/IO bolus

Explanation: According to the European Resuscitation Council (ERC) and ACLS guidelines for shockable cardiac arrest (VF/pVT), Adrenaline (epinephrine) 1 mg IV/IO and Amiodarone 300 mg IV/IO (or Lidocaine 100 mg IV/IO) are indicated immediately after the 3rd shock while CPR is resumed. Subsequent adrenaline is given every 3–5 minutes (alternate cycles), and a second dose of amiodarone (150 mg IV/IO) is administered after the 5th shock if shockable rhythm persists.

2A 52-year-old woman in cardiac arrest has received 4 standard anterolateral biphasic defibrillation shocks (200 J), 1 mg adrenaline, and 300 mg amiodarone for persistent coarse ventricular fibrillation. Chest compressions are continuous with mechanical CPR, and end-tidal CO2 is 24 mmHg. Based on the DOSE VF trial and current resuscitation standards, which strategy is most effective for terminating refractory ventricular fibrillation?

A.Escalating the single defibrillator energy to 360 J while maintaining standard anterolateral pad positions

B.Double sequential external defibrillation (DSED) or vector change (VC) defibrillation to anteroposterior pad positioning

C.Immediate administration of high-dose intravenous calcium chloride 10 mL of 10% solution

D.Ceasing chest compressions for 30 seconds to perform synchronized transvenous pacing

Explanation: The landmark DOSE VF randomized controlled trial demonstrated that for refractory ventricular fibrillation (VF persisting after 3 consecutive standard shocks), both Double Sequential External Defibrillation (DSED) and Vector Change (VC) defibrillation to anteroposterior pad placement significantly increased the rate of termination of VF and survival to hospital discharge compared to standard continuing anterolateral shocks.

3A 44-year-old male athlete suffers a witnessed cardiac arrest during a marathon. Bystander CPR is initiated within 1 minute, and the emergency medical team arrives at minute 6. On ED arrival at minute 35, the patient remains in refractory ventricular fibrillation despite 6 shocks, 3 mg adrenaline, and 450 mg amiodarone total. Mechanical CPR is ongoing, and EtCO2 is 28 mmHg. According to international Extracorporeal CPR (eCPR) guidelines and Swiss shock center protocols, which combination of criteria confirms this patient as an ideal candidate for emergent veno-arterial ECMO (VA-ECMO)?

A.Unwitnessed arrest, asystole presenting rhythm, age >75 years, and low-flow time >90 minutes

B.Witnessed arrest, non-shockable presenting rhythm, severe baseline end-stage renal disease, and EtCO2 <10 mmHg

C.Witnessed arrest, initial shockable rhythm, immediate bystander CPR, age <65 years, and cannulation achievable within 60 minutes of collapse

D.Traumatic cardiac arrest with active non-compressible abdominal hemorrhage and severe coagulopathy

Explanation: Extracorporeal CPR (eCPR using VA-ECMO) provides hemodynamic and gas exchange support during refractory cardiac arrest. Established inclusion criteria for optimal neurological survival include: young/middle age (typically <65–70 years), witnessed collapse, immediate high-quality bystander CPR, initial shockable rhythm (VF/pVT), high EtCO2 during CPR (>15–20 mmHg reflecting adequate perfusion), and target time from collapse to ECMO flow initiation (low-flow time) of <60 minutes.

4A 64-year-old man achieves return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) after 18 minutes of CPR for an out-of-hospital ventricular fibrillation arrest. In the resuscitation bay, he is intubated, comatose with a GCS of 3 (E1VTM1), blood pressure is 115/70 mmHg on a low-dose norepinephrine infusion, and initial core body temperature is 35.8°C. According to current European Resuscitation Council (ERC) and ESICM post-resuscitation guidelines, what is the recommended targeted temperature management (TTM) strategy?

A.Rapid active rewarming to >38.0°C within the first 2 hours using forced-air heating blankets

B.Immediate deep hypothermia targeting a core temperature of 28.0°C–30.0°C for 48 hours

C.No temperature monitoring or intervention unless the core temperature spontaneously drops below 32.0°C

D.Continuous core temperature monitoring with active prevention of fever (target temperature ≤37.5°C) or controlled hypothermia between 32°C and 36°C for at least 72 hours

Explanation: Current ERC and ESICM post-resuscitation guidelines recommend Targeted Temperature Management (TTM) for adults who remain comatose after ROSC. The primary goal is maintaining strict normothermia (core temperature ≤37.5°C) or selecting a constant target between 32°C and 36°C for at least 24 hours, followed by strict fever prevention (avoiding >37.7°C–38.0°C) for at least 72 hours post-ROSC.

5A 68-year-old woman with severe septic shock secondary to acute ascending cholangitis requires emergent rapid sequence intubation (RSI) for worsening respiratory exhaustion and encephalopathy. Her vital signs are: BP 78/42 mmHg (MAP 54 mmHg) despite 2 liters of crystalloids, HR 128 bpm, SpO2 88% on high-flow nasal oxygen, and lactate 5.8 mmol/L. Which induction agent and neuromuscular blocking regimen is most appropriate to minimize peri-intubation cardiovascular collapse?

A.Ketamine (1–2 mg/kg IV) combined with Rocuronium (1.2 mg/kg IV)

B.Propofol (2.5 mg/kg IV) combined with Succinylcholine (1.5 mg/kg IV)

C.Midazolam (0.3 mg/kg IV) combined with Vecuronium (0.1 mg/kg IV)

D.Thiopental (4 mg/kg IV) combined with Atracurium (0.5 mg/kg IV)

Explanation: Ketamine (1–2 mg/kg IV, or a reduced dose of 0.5–1 mg/kg in catecholamine-depleted shock) is the induction agent of choice in hemodynamically unstable patients due to its sympathetic stimulation maintaining systemic vascular resistance and cardiac output. Rocuronium at 1.2 mg/kg provides rapid, optimal intubation conditions within 60 seconds without the hyperkalemia or malignant hyperthermia risks of succinylcholine.

6A 56-year-old male with severe Ludwig's angina and massive submandibular swelling develops acute complete airway obstruction in the ED. An emergency RSI is attempted, but video laryngoscopy fails to visualize the epiglottis (Grade 4 Cormack-Lehane). Two attempts at bag-valve-mask ventilation and placement of a second-generation supraglottic airway device (i-gel) yield zero tidal volume and no chest rise. SpO2 falls rapidly to 58%, and HR drops from 110 to 42 bpm. What is the immediate next step in management?

A.Attempt awake fiberoptic intubation while preparing nebulized adrenaline

B.Perform an immediate emergency front-of-neck access (eFONA / scalpel-bougie-tube cricothyroidotomy)

C.Administer IV sugammadex (16 mg/kg) and wait for spontaneous respiratory recovery

D.Attempt blind digital tracheal intubation with an endotracheal tube

Explanation: This patient is in a 'Cannot Intubate, Cannot Oxygenate' (CICO) catastrophic airway emergency with critical hypoxia and secondary bradycardia. According to Difficult Airway Society (DAS) and Vortex approach guidelines, immediate emergency Front-of-Neck Access (eFONA) via a scalpel-bougie-tube surgical cricothyroidotomy is mandatory to prevent anoxic brain death or cardiac arrest.

7A 28-year-old motorcyclist arrives in the resuscitation room following a high-speed collision. He is intubated and mechanically ventilated. Within minutes of arrival, peak inspiratory pressures spike to 48 cmH2O, blood pressure drops from 120/75 to 65/35 mmHg, heart rate climbs to 142 bpm, right-sided breath sounds are completely absent, and the right hemithorax is hyperresonant to percussion. What is the definitive immediate intervention?

A.Obtain an urgent portable upright chest radiograph to confirm the diagnosis

B.Administer a 1000 mL bolus of crystalloid and increase norepinephrine infusion

C.Perform immediate right-sided finger thoracostomy (clamshell incision line) in the 4th/5th intercostal space anterior axillary line

D.Advance the endotracheal tube 4 cm deeper to ensure bilateral lung ventilation

Explanation: This patient exhibits classic signs of a right-sided tension pneumothorax under positive pressure ventilation causing obstructive shock. Tension pneumothorax is a clinical diagnosis requiring immediate pleural decompression before any imaging. In a ventilated trauma patient, immediate finger thoracostomy (simple thoracostomy) in the 4th/5th intercostal space, anterior/mid-axillary line, instantly releases tension and restores venous return.

8A 34-year-old construction worker suffers severe pelvic crush injury and multiple lower extremity fractures. In the resuscitation bay, he is in profound hemorrhagic shock with SBP 55 mmHg despite rapid initiation of massive transfusion protocol and pelvic binder placement. eFAST shows fluid in the pelvis but no pericardial or pleural effusion. The trauma team decides to deploy Resuscitative Endovascular Balloon Occlusion of the Aorta (REBOA). Which anatomical zone of balloon inflation is indicated, and what is the maximum recommended total continuous occlusion time to avoid lethal ischemic-reperfusion injury?

A.Zone 1 (mid-thoracic aorta) with unlimited balloon occlusion time up to 180 minutes

B.Zone 2 (pararenal aorta) with maximum balloon occlusion time of 90 minutes

C.Zone 3 (infrarenal aorta) with maximum balloon occlusion time of 120 minutes

D.Zone 1 (distal descending thoracic aorta) or Zone 3 (infrarenal aorta) with maximum complete occlusion time limited to 30–45 minutes (favoring partial/intermittent REBOA)

Explanation: REBOA balloon occlusion is performed in Zone 1 (distal thoracic aorta, T4–T8) for intra-abdominal or non-compressible pelvic hemorrhage, or Zone 3 (infrarenal aorta, L2–L4) for isolated severe pelvic/junctional hemorrhage. Zone 2 (visceral/pararenal aorta) is strictly avoided. Total continuous warm balloon occlusion time must be kept strictly below 30–45 minutes (using partial or intermittent deflation strategies) to prevent irreversible organ ischemia, profound metabolic acidosis, and reperfusion cardiovascular collapse.

9During the resuscitation of a 72-year-old patient in septic shock with collapsed peripheral veins, an intraosseous (IO) access needle is placed in the proximal humerus. To achieve rapid flow rates comparable to central venous access for pressurized crystalloid and blood resuscitation, which procedural step is mandatory?

A.Administering a pressurized rapid flush (5–10 mL normal saline bolus) followed by the use of an infusion pressure bag or rapid infuser

B.Allowing gravity drip only, as pressure bags are contraindicated with intraosseous access due to fat embolism risk

C.Infusing 500 mL of free sterile water into the marrow space to open medullary sinusoids

D.Connecting the IO line directly to standard non-pressurized microdrip tubing without priming

Explanation: Due to the natural resistance of medullary sinusoids and bone marrow cavity, establishing high flow rates through an IO needle requires an initial forceful flush with 5–10 mL of saline (to clear marrow spicules and open sinusoids) followed by the mandatory application of an infusion pressure bag (up to 300 mmHg) or commercial rapid infuser. Proximal humeral IO sites achieve flow rates up to 5 L/hr under pressure.

10A 60-year-old woman with metastatic lung adenocarcinoma presents with severe dyspnea, distant heart sounds, jugular venous distension, and BP 75/50 mmHg with a pulsus paradoxus of 22 mmHg. Point-of-care ultrasound demonstrates a large circumferential pericardial effusion with early diastolic right ventricular collapse. While the patient is being prepped for emergent pericardiocentesis, what is the best initial bedside ultrasound-guided needle approach?

A.Subcostal blind puncture directed towards the right shoulder at a 90-degree angle to the skin

B.Real-time ultrasound-guided subxiphoid or apical/parasternal approach where the fluid is closest to the transducer and no vital structures intervene

C.Blind left mid-axillary 5th intercostal space needle insertion without ultrasound guidance

D.Transdiaphragmatic puncture via open epigastric laparotomy

Explanation: Modern emergency pericardiocentesis should always be performed under direct real-time ultrasound guidance whenever available. The optimal entry site is where the effusion is closest to the probe (subxiphoid, apical, or left parasternal) with an acoustic trajectory that avoids the liver, lung, and internal mammary/intercostal arteries.

About the Schwerpunkt Klinische Notfallmedizin SGNOR Exam

The Interdisziplinärer Schwerpunkt Klinische Notfallmedizin SGNOR (Formation approfondie interdisciplinaire en médecine d'urgence clinique) is the Swiss federal interdisciplinary subspecialty title certifying advanced clinical competency in emergency medicine. Governed by the SGNOR under the auspices of the SIWF/FMH, this qualification is open to physicians holding or completing a primary FMH specialist title in General Internal Medicine, Anesthesiology, Surgery, Intensive Care Medicine, Cardiology, or Orthopedic Surgery and Traumatology. Candidates undergo 2–3 years of specialized emergency department training, complete workplace-based assessments (DOPS, Mini-CEX), log mandatory emergency procedures, and sit the annual oral and practical board examination before the Interdisziplinäre Prüfungskommission. Note on format and language: While the official SGNOR subspecialty examination is administered as oral and practical simulation stations in Swiss national languages (German/French), this question bank is an English-language multiple-choice study adaptation created by OpenExamPrep—not an official SGNOR examination release—specifically designed to train high-yield clinical decision-making, resuscitation protocols, trauma care, toxicology, emergency diagnostics, and triage algorithms according to Swiss and European emergency medicine guidelines.

Assessment

Two-part qualifying examination administered by the SGNOR Examination Commission: 1) A structured oral examination consisting of standardized clinical emergency case scenarios covering internal medicine, surgical, neurological, and toxicological emergencies, and 2) A practical simulation examination evaluating real-time team leadership, resuscitation skills, airway management, and ultrasound diagnostics (POCUS/eFAST).

Time Limit

Approximately 60–90 minutes oral examination plus half-day structured practical simulation stations

Passing Score

Satisfactory performance across all oral case stations and practical emergency management stations according to standardized SGNOR evaluation rubrics

Exam Fee

SGNOR examination fee CHF 600 for SGNOR members, CHF 1,000 for non-members; per the SIWF programme the diploma issuance fee equals the examination fee (Schweizerische Gesellschaft für Notfall- und Rettungsmedizin (SGNOR) and Schweizerisches Institut für ärztliche Weiter- und Fortbildung (SIWF / FMH))

Schwerpunkt Klinische Notfallmedizin SGNOR Exam Content Outline

18%

Resuscitation, Advanced Airway & Emergency Procedures

Evidence-based adult resuscitation (ERC/ACLS algorithms, refractory shockable arrest, double sequential defibrillation, antiarrhythmics, post-ROSC targeted temperature management TTM, eCPR indications), rapid sequence induction/intubation (RSI, difficult airway algorithms, video laryngoscopy, bougie, surgical cricothyroidotomy), procedural sedation and analgesia (PSA: ketamine, propofol, fentanyl, safety monitoring), and life-saving invasive procedures (finger thoracostomy, chest tube insertion, pericardiocentesis, emergency pacing, intraosseous access, REBOA).

20%

Acute Cardiovascular & Respiratory Emergencies

Recognition and management of acute coronary syndromes (STEMI, NSTEMI, Occlusion Myocardial Infarction OMI, Sgarbossa/Smith criteria, de Winter pattern, Wellens syndrome, right ventricular infarction, cardiogenic shock, dual antiplatelet and antithrombotic regimens), acute unstable and stable tachyarrhythmias and bradyarrhythmias, acute decompensated heart failure and pulmonary edema (NIV/CPAP, vasodilators), acute aortic syndromes (Stanford type A/B dissection, ruptured AAA, esmolol/labetalol hemodynamics), acute pulmonary embolism (high-risk PE thrombolysis, intermediate-high risk stratification, catheter-directed therapies), and severe acute respiratory failure (asthma exacerbations, COPD, non-invasive ventilation, ARDS).

18%

Trauma, Damage Control Resuscitation & Disaster Triage

Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS 10th/11th edition principles, primary and secondary surveys), damage control resuscitation (massive transfusion protocols 1:1:1, tranexamic acid CRASH-2/CRASH-3, ROTEM/TEG viscoelastic testing, permissive hypotension, pelvic binder placement), severe traumatic brain injury (TBI, target MAP/CPP, hypertonic saline vs mannitol, avoidance of secondary insults), thoracic and abdominal trauma (tension pneumothorax, flail chest, blunt cardiac injury, solid organ injury grading), spinal trauma clearances (NEXUS and Canadian C-Spine rules), emergency department triage (Manchester Triage System MTS, Emergency Severity Index ESI), and disaster mass casualty incident management (START, mSTaRT triage algorithms).

16%

Acute Neurological, Psychiatric & Toxicological Emergencies

Acute ischemic stroke management (IV thrombolysis with alteplase/tenecteplase within 4.5 hours, endovascular thrombectomy within 6–24 hours based on DAWN/DEFUSE-3 perfusion imaging, blood pressure control <185/110 mmHg), intracranial hemorrhage and spontaneous subarachnoid hemorrhage (anticoagulation reversal: idarucizumab, andexanet alfa, 4-factor PCC, blood pressure lowering, Ottawa SAH rule), status epilepticus stepped protocol (IV lorazepam/midazolam, levetiracetam/valproate/fosphenytoin, continuous infusions), acute delirium and CNS infections (meningitis/encephalitis empiric therapy), emergency psychiatric crises (rapid de-escalation, psychopharmacology, Swiss legal framework for involuntary psychiatric admission / Fürsorgerische Unterbringung FU), and major toxidromes/poisonings (opioids, paracetamol Rumack-Matthew nomogram/NAC, TCAs with sodium bicarbonate, beta-blockers with high-dose insulin, calcium channel blockers, toxic alcohols with fomepizole, carbon monoxide).

14%

Point-of-Care Ultrasound (POCUS) & Emergency Diagnostics

Extended Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma (eFAST: RUQ Morison pouch, LUQ splenorenal, suprapubic, pericardial, anterior thoracic lung sliding), Lung Ultrasound (LUS: A-lines, B-lines/pulmonary edema, lung point for pneumothorax, hepatization/consolidation, pleural effusion), Focused Cardiac Ultrasound (FoCUS: pericardial tamponade and RV diastolic collapse, acute RV strain McConnell sign, global LV function, IVC collapsibility), vascular POCUS (abdominal aortic aneurysm diameter measurement, deep vein thrombosis compression ultrasonography, ultrasound-guided vascular access), and emergency laboratory diagnostics (blood gas interpretation, high-sensitivity troponin rapid algorithms, lactate kinetics, coagulation profiles).

14%

Pediatric, Obstetric & Geriatric Emergency Care

Pediatric assessment and stabilization (Pediatric Assessment Triangle PAT, pediatric ALS resuscitation, weight-based dosing, pediatric shock, viral croup and nebulized adrenaline, bronchiolitis, pediatric status epilepticus, neonatal fever evaluation), emergency obstetric and peripartum emergencies (severe preeclampsia/eclampsia and IV magnesium sulfate, peripartum hemorrhage, shoulder dystocia, perimortem cesarean section / resuscitative hysterotomy at >20 weeks gestation within 4–5 minutes of maternal arrest), and geriatric emergency medicine (atypical disease presentations, anticoagulated head injury, fragility fractures, polypharmacy, delirium assessment).

How to Pass the Schwerpunkt Klinische Notfallmedizin SGNOR Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: Satisfactory performance across all oral case stations and practical emergency management stations according to standardized SGNOR evaluation rubrics
Assessment: Two-part qualifying examination administered by the SGNOR Examination Commission: 1) A structured oral examination consisting of standardized clinical emergency case scenarios covering internal medicine, surgical, neurological, and toxicological emergencies, and 2) A practical simulation examination evaluating real-time team leadership, resuscitation skills, airway management, and ultrasound diagnostics (POCUS/eFAST).
Time limit: Approximately 60–90 minutes oral examination plus half-day structured practical simulation stations
Exam fee: SGNOR examination fee CHF 600 for SGNOR members, CHF 1,000 for non-members; per the SIWF programme the diploma issuance fee equals the examination fee

Keys to Passing

Work through all 100 available questions
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Schwerpunkt Klinische Notfallmedizin SGNOR Study Tips from Top Performers

1Master Resuscitation & Refractory Arrest Algorithms: Practice systematic approaches to refractory ventricular fibrillation (evaluating double sequential external defibrillation and vector change), early consideration of veno-arterial ECMO (eCPR) in selected candidates, and protocolized post-cardiac arrest care including targeted temperature management (TTM 32–36°C or strict normothermia <37.5°C) and emergent coronary angiography.

2Internalize Damage Control Resuscitation & Trauma Guidelines: Know the indications for immediate massive transfusion activation (1:1:1 packed red cells, fresh frozen plasma, and platelets), early administration of IV tranexamic acid (within 3 hours of injury), viscoelastic ROTEM/TEG interpretation (guiding fibrinogen concentrate, PCC, and platelet dosing), and rapid placement of pelvic binders for open-book pelvic fractures before imaging.

3Sharpen Point-of-Care Ultrasound (POCUS) Interpretation: Be proficient in identifying sonographic pathognomonic signs, including the lung point (ruling in pneumothorax), B-line profiles (diffuse interstitial pulmonary edema), the 'stratosphere/barcode sign' on M-mode, diastolic RV free wall collapse (cardiac tamponade), and McConnell's sign (acute pulmonary embolism).

4Memorize Hyperacute Stroke & Neurovascular Protocols: Understand the precise inclusion/exclusion criteria for IV thrombolysis (alteplase 0.9 mg/kg or tenecteplase 0.25 mg/kg within 4.5 hours of symptom onset) and mechanical thrombectomy up to 24 hours based on CT/MR perfusion core-to-penumbra mismatch (DAWN and DEFUSE-3 trials), as well as blood pressure targets (<185/110 mmHg prior to thrombolysis).

5Know Targeted Antidotes & Toxidrome Management: Rapidly recognize cholinergic, anticholinergic, sympathomimetic, opioid, and sedative toxidromes. Master high-dose insulin euglycemia therapy (HIET) for severe beta-blocker/calcium channel blocker toxicity, sodium bicarbonate for TCA-induced QRS widening (>100 ms), fomepizole for toxic alcohols, and specific DOAC reversal agents (idarucizumab for dabigatran, andexanet alfa for factor Xa inhibitors).

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the Schwerpunkt Klinische Notfallmedizin SGNOR qualification?

The Schwerpunkt Klinische Notfallmedizin SGNOR is the Swiss federal interdisciplinary subspecialty qualification (Interdisziplinärer Schwerpunkt / Formation approfondie interdisciplinaire) governed by the Schweizerische Gesellschaft für Notfall- und Rettungsmedizin (SGNOR) under SIWF/FMH regulations. It certifies specialist physicians across qualifying disciplines (General Internal Medicine, Anesthesiology, Surgery, Intensive Care Medicine, Cardiology, and Orthopedics/Traumatology) who have completed dedicated clinical emergency medicine training and passed the interdisciplinary board examination.

How is the official SGNOR subspecialty examination structured?

The examination is administered annually by the Interdisziplinäre Prüfungskommission Klinische Notfallmedizin. It comprises two distinct components: 1) A structured oral examination (mündliche Prüfung) evaluating complex emergency case vignettes, diagnostic reasoning, and multi-system medical/surgical triage; and 2) A practical simulation/OSCE examination (praktische Prüfung) evaluating high-fidelity team leadership, resuscitation skills, airway interventions, and point-of-care ultrasound (POCUS) performance.

What are the primary eligibility requirements to register for the SGNOR exam?

Candidates must hold a Swiss Federal Medical Diploma (or MEBEKO-recognized equivalent), be enrolled in or possess an eligible primary FMH specialist title, complete a minimum of 2–3 years of clinical training in SGNOR-accredited emergency departments, document workplace-based assessments (DOPS, Mini-CEX) in the SIWF e-Logbook, and hold valid certificates in ALS/ACLS, ATLS/ETC, PALS/EPLS, and emergency ultrasound (POCUS).

What clinical guidelines form the core framework of the SGNOR curriculum?

The curriculum is aligned with European Resuscitation Council (ERC) guidelines, European Society of Cardiology (ESC) guidelines for ACS and pulmonary embolism, Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS/ETC), European Stroke Organisation (ESO) recommendations, Surviving Sepsis Campaign bundles, SGNOR point-of-care ultrasound standards, and Swiss cantonal emergency legal frameworks (including Fürsorgerische Unterbringung - FU).

Why is this practice question bank presented in English?

While the official SGNOR oral and practical examination is conducted in Swiss national languages (German and French), international emergency medicine guidelines, clinical trial nomenclature, and resuscitation standards are universally published in English. This practice bank adapts the Swiss SGNOR learning objectives into 100 high-yield English-language clinical vignette questions created by OpenExamPrep to train systematic clinical decision-making.

How does point-of-care ultrasound (POCUS) integrate into emergency board assessments?

POCUS is a mandatory core competency under the SGNOR curriculum. Candidates must demonstrate proficiency in eFAST for trauma, lung ultrasound (LUS) for distinguishing pneumothorax from pulmonary edema or consolidation, focused cardiac ultrasound (FoCUS) for pericardial tamponade and acute RV strain, compression ultrasound for deep vein thrombosis, and vascular access guidance.

100+ Free Schwerpunkt Klinische Notfallmedizin SGNOR Practice Questions

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