All Practice Exams

100+ Free Facharzt FMH Neurochirurgie Practice Questions

Prepare for the Facharzt FMH für Neurochirurgie / Spécialiste FMH en neurochirurgie exam with instant access — no signup required.

✓ No registration✓ No credit card✓ No hidden fees✓ Start practicing immediately
100+ Questions
100% Free

Loading practice questions...

2026 Statistics

Key Facts: Facharzt FMH Neurochirurgie Exam

EANS + SGNC

Exam Format

SIWF / SGNC Examination Regulations

150

Written EANS MCQs

EANS Examination Board

6 Years

Postgraduate Training

SIWF Weiterbildungsprogramm

180 min

Written Exam Duration

EANS Examination Committee

Lifetime

FMH Title Validity

Swiss Medical Association (FMH)

100

Practice Questions

OpenExamPrep

The Facharzt FMH Neurochirurgie credential certifies specialist neurosurgeons in Switzerland through SIWF and SGNC. Certification requires 6 years of accredited training, passing the written European EANS Part 1 Examination (150 MCQs in English), and passing the SGNC Swiss oral board examination across cranial, spinal, vascular, traumatic, pediatric, and functional neurosurgery.

Sample Facharzt FMH Neurochirurgie Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your Facharzt FMH Neurochirurgie exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 54-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a sudden-onset thunderclap headache, transient loss of consciousness, and meningism. Non-contrast cranial CT reveals extensive subarachnoid hemorrhage in the basal cisterns with acute ventriculomegaly (Hunt & Hess Grade 3, modified Fisher Grade 3). CT angiography demonstrates a 6 mm saccular anterior communicating artery (ACoA) aneurysm. Her GCS score declines from 13 to 10 in the resuscitation bay with increasing somnolence. What is the most appropriate immediate sequence of interventions?
A.Immediate placement of an external ventricular drain (EVD) to manage acute hydrocephalus, followed by urgent aneurysm securing (coiling or clipping) within 24 to 72 hours
B.Administration of high-dose intravenous methylprednisolone and deferred aneurysm securing until brain swelling subsides at day 10
C.Immediate high-volume lumbar puncture to clear bloody CSF, followed by elective outpatient aneurysm embolization
D.Induction of profound hypervolemic-hypertensive therapy (triple-H) prior to invasive vascular imaging or CSF diversion
Explanation: In acute aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage complicated by acute hydrocephalus and neurological deterioration, immediate placement of an external ventricular drain (EVD) is critical to reduce elevated ICP and prevent secondary brain injury. According to EANS and AHA/ASA guidelines, the ruptured aneurysm should be secured (via endovascular coiling or microsurgical clipping) as early as feasible (within 24–72 hours) to eliminate the risk of fatal rebleeding.
2A 49-year-old man who underwent successful endovascular coiling of a ruptured right middle cerebral artery (MCA) aneurysm develops new left-sided hemiparesis and pronator drift on post-bleed day 7. His blood pressure is 118/72 mmHg and heart rate is 68 bpm. Daily transcranial Doppler (TCD) shows right MCA mean flow velocities increased from 110 cm/s to 215 cm/s (Lindegaard ratio 4.8). CT angiography confirms focal severe vasospasm of the right M1 segment without intracranial rebleeding or infarction. According to current European guidelines for Delayed Cerebral Ischemia (DCI), what is the first-line therapeutic management?
A.Aggressive fluid restriction (1 L/day) and therapeutic hypothermia (target 33°C)
B.Induced hypertension using continuous noradrenaline/norepinephrine to maintain elevated MAP while maintaining strict euvolemia, alongside continued oral nimodipine
C.Immediate surgical exploratory craniotomy for mechanical vessel stripping and papaverine irrigation
D.Discontinuation of oral nimodipine due to suspected drug-induced cerebral steal phenomenon
Explanation: The primary medical management for delayed cerebral ischemia (DCI) secondary to vasospasm is induced hypertension (using vasopressors such as noradrenaline to augment cerebral perfusion pressure) while maintaining strict euvolemia. Oral nimodipine (60 mg every 4 hours for 21 days) is standard neuroprotective therapy that improves neurological outcomes; prophylactic hypervolemia and hemodilution are obsolete.
3A 48-year-old previously healthy woman is found on MRI/MRA to have an incidental, unruptured 7 mm saccular aneurysm of the right middle cerebral artery (MCA) bifurcation. High-resolution catheter angiography reveals a wide neck (dome-to-neck ratio 1.1) with both dominant M2 cortical branches arising directly from the aneurysm base. She has no family history of aneurysms. What is the most appropriate definitive management recommendation?
A.Lifetime conservative observation with repeat non-contrast CT every 5 years only
B.Simple coil embolization without balloon or stent assistance to avoid antiplatelet therapy
C.Microsurgical clipping via a right pterional / minipterional craniotomy
D.Parent vessel sacrifice of the right M1 segment using endovascular permanent liquid embolics
Explanation: Middle cerebral artery (MCA) bifurcation aneurysms with wide necks and incorporated arterial branch takeoffs (M2 branches originating from the aneurysm base) are classically best managed by microsurgical clipping. Open clipping allows direct reconstruction of the bifurcation apex, preserving both efferent branches without requiring long-term dual antiplatelet therapy associated with stent-assisted coiling or flow diversion.
4A 56-year-old man presents with an acute, severe retro-orbital headache, ipsilateral ptosis, a dilated and non-reactive pupil, and an eye positioned 'down and out'. Emergent diagnostic workup demonstrates a 9 mm saccular aneurysm originating at the junction of the internal carotid artery and posterior communicating artery (ICA-PCoA). What is the primary pathophysiological mechanism of the cranial nerve deficit, and what is the urgency of intervention?
A.Ischemic infarction of the central core of CN VI; elective outpatient management in 4–6 weeks
B.Microvascular diabetic mononeuropathy sparing the pupillomotor fibers; observation without imaging
C.Trigeminal nerve (V1) compression within the superior orbital fissure; urgent radiation therapy
D.Direct mechanical compression of the peripheral pupillomotor parasympathetic fibers on the outer surface of CN III; urgent surgical or endovascular aneurysm exclusion
Explanation: A pupil-involving third cranial nerve (oculomotor) palsy with acute retro-orbital pain is the classic presentation of an expanding ICA-PCoA aneurysm compressing the pupillomotor parasympathetic fibers located superficially on the superomedial aspect of CN III. This is a neurosurgical emergency signaling imminent aneurysm rupture, requiring urgent aneurysm exclusion (clipping or coiling), which also offers the best chance for cranial nerve recovery.
5A 58-year-old woman is admitted with acute subarachnoid hemorrhage (WFNS Grade 1, Fisher Grade 2). Cerebral angiography reveals a 6 mm saccular basilar apex (bifurcation) aneurysm with a narrow neck pointing superiorly. The posterior cerebral arteries (P1 segments) originate cleanly below the aneurysm neck. Based on landmark randomized evidence from the International Subarachnoid Aneurysm Trial (ISAT) and posterior circulation anatomy, what is the preferred initial treatment modality?
A.Endovascular coil embolization
B.Bifrontal craniotomy with transbasal subfrontal approach for surgical clipping
C.Suboccipital telovelar approach for aneurysm trap ligation
D.Conservative observation with blood pressure reduction to systolic <90 mmHg without intervention
Explanation: For ruptured basilar apex (posterior circulation) aneurysms, endovascular coiling is the preferred first-line modality due to favorable occlusion rates and significantly lower procedural morbidity compared to deep skull base microsurgical approaches (such as orbitozygomatic or subtemporal approaches), consistent with findings from the ISAT and Barrow Ruptured Aneurysm Trial (BRAT).
6A 42-year-old man presents with acute SAH. Cerebral catheter angiography demonstrates a 3 mm blister-like aneurysm arising from the non-branching dorsal wall of the supraclinoid internal carotid artery (ICA). Which histological and morphological characteristic best explains the high surgical friability of this lesion, and what is a widely accepted modern reconstruction strategy?
A.Thick muscularis media with dense adventitia; simple microvascular clip placement across the base without parent vessel occlusion
B.Absence of internal elastic lamina and deficiency of the normal arterial media with a thin adventitial-only wall; flow diversion with or without coil assistance / covered stent reconstruction
C.True atherosclerotic wall with intraluminal calcification; primary resection with synthetic patch angioplasty
D.Extensive collagenous pseudocapsule; endoscopic endonasal transclival suction-decompression
Explanation: Blood blister-like aneurysms (BBAs) of the ICA are pseudoaneurysms resulting from focal arterial wall dissection, characterized histopathologically by a defect in both the internal elastic lamina and media, covered only by a fragile layer of adventitia and thrombus. Standard microsurgical clipping frequently results in wall avulsion and catastrophic tearing; endovascular reconstruction with flow-diverting stents (e.g., with or without adjunct coiling) or clip-wrapping provides superior parent vessel reconstruction.
7A 31-year-old male teacher experiences a new-onset generalized tonic-clonic seizure. Brain MRI reveals a 2.5 cm cortical arteriovenous malformation (AVM) located in the right non-dominant superior parietal lobule. Catheter angiography demonstrates arterial feeders from the right middle cerebral artery and drainage exclusively via a single superficial cortical vein into the superior sagittal sinus. The surrounding brain parenchyma is non-eloquent. What is the Spetzler-Martin grade of this AVM, and what is the recommended treatment?
A.Spetzler-Martin Grade III; whole-brain radiation therapy
B.Spetzler-Martin Grade II; permanent observation without antiepileptic drugs
C.Spetzler-Martin Grade I (Size <3 cm: 1, Non-eloquent: 0, Superficial drainage: 0); complete microsurgical resection
D.Spetzler-Martin Grade IV; stereotactic radiofrequency thermal ablation
Explanation: The Spetzler-Martin grading system assigns points based on size (<3 cm = 1, 3–6 cm = 2, >6 cm = 3), eloquence of adjacent cortex (non-eloquent = 0, eloquent = 1), and venous drainage pattern (superficial only = 0, deep component = 1). This lesion scores 1 + 0 + 0 = Spetzler-Martin Grade I. Grade I and II AVMs have low surgical morbidity and high cure rates with microsurgical excision, which eliminates the lifetime risk of intracranial hemorrhage.
8A 52-year-old accountant with no prior history of intracranial hemorrhage or focal neurological deficit is evaluated for chronic tension-type headaches. MRI and cerebral angiography identify an unruptured 4.5 cm arteriovenous malformation in the left dominant precentral gyrus (motor cortex) with deep venous drainage to the internal cerebral veins (Spetzler-Martin Grade IV). In light of the ARUBA (A Randomized Trial of Unruptured Brain Arteriovenous Malformations) trial and international consensus, what is the best management strategy?
A.Single-stage complete embolization using high-pressure Onyx injection without antiepileptics
B.Emergency radical microsurgical excision within 48 hours to prevent primary rupture
C.Stereotactic fractionated whole-head proton beam therapy up to 70 Gy
D.Conservative medical management (symptom control and blood pressure management), deferring invasive intervention
Explanation: The ARUBA trial demonstrated that in patients with unruptured brain AVMs, conservative medical management resulted in a significantly lower risk of death or stroke (10.1%) compared with interventional therapy (30.7%) over initial follow-up. For unruptured high-grade AVMs (Spetzler-Martin Grade IV/V) in eloquent brain regions with deep venous drainage, the operative and embolization morbidity significantly outweighs the natural history risk, making medical management the standard initial approach.
9A 63-year-old woman presents with pulsatile tinnitus, progressive cognitive decline, and headache. DSA reveals a dural arteriovenous fistula (dAVF) of the left transverse-sigmoid sinus with direct retrograde cortical venous reflux and venous ectasia (Cognard Type IV / Borden Type III). What is the annual risk of intracranial hemorrhage associated with this lesion, and what is the definitive therapeutic approach?
A.High annual hemorrhage risk (~8–10% per year); urgent intervention via transarterial/transvenous embolization or surgical disconnection of the leptomeningeal venous drainage
B.Benign course (<0.1% per year); reassurance and annual MRI follow-up only
C.Moderate risk (~1% per year); medical management with therapeutic warfarin anticoagulation
D.Low risk; external carotid artery surgical ligation in the neck alone
Explanation: Dural arteriovenous fistulas (dAVFs) with cortical venous drainage (Cognard Types III–V, Borden Types II–III) carry an aggressive natural history with an annual hemorrhage risk of 8–10% and annual non-hemorrhagic neurological deficit risk of ~10%. Definitive obliteration of the fistulous connection or surgical disconnection of the arterialized leptomeningeal draining vein (via transvenous/transarterial embolization or microsurgical interruption) is urgently indicated.
10A 38-year-old man presents with progressive right-sided facial numbness, horizontal diplopia (CN VI palsy), and left hemiparesis following an episode of acute pontine hemorrhage. Brain MRI shows a 1.8 cm cavernous malformation ('popcorn' appearance with a complete hemosiderin ring on T2/SWI) located in the dorsal pons, abutting and reaching the ependymal floor of the fourth ventricle (rhomboid fossa) superior to the facial colliculus. This represents his second clinically symptomatic bleed in 6 months. What is the most appropriate surgical management?
A.Whole-brain radiation therapy with 30 Gy fractionated dose
B.Microsurgical resection via a suboccipital telovelar approach using intraoperative cranial nerve and brainstem neuromonitoring
C.Stereotactic radiofrequency thermal ablation via a transfrontal trajectory
D.Intra-arterial superselective catheterization and liquid embolic injection of the cavernoma nidus
Explanation: Brainstem cavernous malformations that reach a pial or ependymal surface (the 'two-point method') and have caused recurrent clinically symptomatic hemorrhages are indicated for microsurgical resection. The suboccipital telovelar approach provides safe access to the floor of the fourth ventricle, entering through non-eloquent safe entry zones (e.g., supra- or infra-facial colliculus) with neurophysiological monitoring.

About the Facharzt FMH Neurochirurgie Exam

The Facharzt FMH für Neurochirurgie (Specialist in Neurosurgery FMH) is the Swiss Federal specialist title granting full independent practice rights in neurological surgery throughout Switzerland. Administered under the auspices of SIWF (Swiss Institute for Postgraduate and Continuous Medical Training) and SGNC (Swiss Society of Neurosurgery), board certification requires completing 6 years of accredited residency training, maintaining a verified surgical e-Logbook, passing the written European Board Examination in Neurological Surgery (EANS Part 1) in English, and passing the SGNC oral board examination. The syllabus covers cranial neuro-oncology (gliomas, meningiomas, acoustic neuromas, pituitary adenomas, metastases, skull base lesions), neurovascular surgery (aneurysms, AVMs, dAVFs, cavernomas, ischemic stroke revascularization, intracerebral hemorrhage), spinal surgery (cervical and lumbar degenerative disc disease, myelopathy, spinal trauma, spinal cord injury, spinal tumors, spinal deformity), neurotrauma and neurointensive care (TBI, epidural and subdural hematomas, Brain Trauma Foundation ICP/CPP guidelines, multimodal neuromonitoring), pediatric neurosurgery (craniosynostosis, hydrocephalus, myelomeningocele, Chiari malformation, pediatric neoplasms), and functional neurosurgery (deep brain stimulation, epilepsy surgery, trigeminal neuralgia microvascular decompression, peripheral nerve decompression and repair). Note on format and language: While the official written EANS Part 1 examination is delivered entirely in English across Europe, and the SGNC oral examination is conducted in Swiss national languages (German/French) or English, this question bank is an English-language multiple-choice study adaptation developed by OpenExamPrep—not an official EANS/SGNC examination release—engineered to test high-yield surgical decision-making, clinical neuroanatomy, landmark clinical trials, and evidence-based neurosurgical guidelines.

Assessment

Two-stage qualification: 1) The written EANS Part 1 examination comprising 150 multiple-choice questions across two papers (Paper A: Basic neurosciences, neuroanatomy, neuroradiology, neurotrauma/critical care, neurology; Paper B: Neuro-oncology, neurovascular, spine, hydrocephalus, infection, functional, peripheral nerve), and 2) The SGNC oral board examination consisting of interactive clinical case scenarios before the Commission for Postgraduate Training (KWFTP).

Time Limit

180 minutes written examination (Paper A 90 min, Paper B 90 min) plus structured oral examination

Passing Score

Psychometrically standard criterion-referenced pass mark on the written EANS Part 1 MCQ examination and consensus pass evaluation on the SGNC oral clinical board

Exam Fee

EANS Part 1 Examination fee ~EUR 400–600; SGNC Oral Examination fee CHF 2,000; SIWF FMH Title Application fee CHF 1,000–2,500 (Schweizerisches Institut für ärztliche Weiter- und Fortbildung (SIWF / FMH) and Schweizerische Gesellschaft für Neurochirurgie (SGNC) in partnership with the European Association of Neurosurgical Societies (EANS))

Facharzt FMH Neurochirurgie Exam Content Outline

25%

Neuro-Oncology & Skull Base Surgery

Classification and multimodality management of intra-axial and extra-axial intracranial neoplasms (WHO 2021 CNS classification: IDH-mutant/wildtype gliomas, 1p/19q co-deletion, meningiomas, vestibular schwannomas, pituitary adenomas, brain metastases, craniopharyngiomas), surgical approaches, intraoperative neuromonitoring, awake mapping, fluorescence guidance (5-ALA), and adjuvant radiotherapy/chemotherapy protocols (Stupp regimen).

20%

Neurovascular Surgery & Interventional Concepts

Diagnosis, microsurgical clipping, endovascular coiling, and flow diversion of intracranial aneurysms (Hunt & Hess, Fisher, WFNS), acute management of subarachnoid hemorrhage, delayed cerebral ischemia and vasospasm, arteriovenous malformations (Spetzler-Martin classification, ARUBA trial), dural arteriovenous fistulas (Cognard/Borden), cavernous malformations (Zabramski), spontaneous intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH score, STICH/ENRICH/MISTIE trials), and revascularization/decompressive hemicraniectomy in acute stroke (DECIMAL, DESTINY, HAMLET, DAWN).

20%

Spine & Spinal Cord Disorders

Pathology, biomechanics, conservative, and surgical management of degenerative cervical, thoracic, and lumbar spine disorders (ACDF, cervical arthroplasty, laminoplasty, lumbar microdiscectomy, decompression/fusion for spondylolisthesis), spinal trauma and fractures (AO Spine, TLICS, SLIC, Anderson-D'Alonzo odontoid classification), spinal cord injury (ASIA impairment scale, STASCIS trial, hemodynamic targets), intradural and extradural spinal tumors (SINS score, Patchell trial, schwannomas, meningiomas, ependymomas), adult spinal deformity, and spinal vascular malformations.

15%

Neurotrauma & Neurocritical Care

Acute management of traumatic brain injury (TBI: GCS, pupillary reactivity, Marshall/Rotterdam CT scores), intracranial mass lesions (epidural hematoma, acute and chronic subdural hematoma, middle meningeal artery embolization), Brain Trauma Foundation (BTF) guidelines for tiered ICP and CPP management (osmolar therapy, moderate hyperventilation, CSF diversion, neuromuscular blockade, barbiturates, decompressive craniectomy [RESCUEicp, DECRA]), multimodal neuromonitoring (PbtO2, microdialysis), and neuro-intensive care complications.

10%

Pediatric Neurosurgery & Hydrocephalus

Pathophysiology and management of hydrocephalus (VP shunt, endoscopic third ventriculostomy ETV with choroid plexus coagulation CPC, ETV Success Score), craniosynostosis (sagittal, coronal, metopic, lambdoid, syndromic FGFR mutations), neural tube defects and spinal dysraphism (open myelomeningocele MOMS trial, tethered cord syndrome), Chiari malformations and syringomyelia, pediatric intracranial tumors (pilocytic astrocytoma, medulloblastoma molecular subgroups, ependymoma, craniopharyngioma, DIPG), and pediatric trauma.

10%

Functional Neurosurgery, Epilepsy, Pain & Peripheral Nerves

Indications, anatomical targeting, and surgical techniques for Deep Brain Stimulation (DBS: STN, GPi, VIM for Parkinson's disease, dystonia, essential tremor), surgical treatment of drug-resistant epilepsy (anterior temporal lobectomy, selective amygdalohippocampectomy, stereoelectroencephalography SEEG, callosotomy, hemispherotomy), microvascular decompression (MVD: Jannetta procedure) and percutaneous techniques for trigeminal and glossopharyngeal neuralgia, peripheral nerve compression syndromes (carpal tunnel, cubital tunnel, peroneal nerve), and nerve injury classifications (Seddon, Sunderland).

How to Pass the Facharzt FMH Neurochirurgie Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Psychometrically standard criterion-referenced pass mark on the written EANS Part 1 MCQ examination and consensus pass evaluation on the SGNC oral clinical board
  • Assessment: Two-stage qualification: 1) The written EANS Part 1 examination comprising 150 multiple-choice questions across two papers (Paper A: Basic neurosciences, neuroanatomy, neuroradiology, neurotrauma/critical care, neurology; Paper B: Neuro-oncology, neurovascular, spine, hydrocephalus, infection, functional, peripheral nerve), and 2) The SGNC oral board examination consisting of interactive clinical case scenarios before the Commission for Postgraduate Training (KWFTP).
  • Time limit: 180 minutes written examination (Paper A 90 min, Paper B 90 min) plus structured oral examination
  • Exam fee: EANS Part 1 Examination fee ~EUR 400–600; SGNC Oral Examination fee CHF 2,000; SIWF FMH Title Application fee CHF 1,000–2,500

Keys to Passing

  • Work through all 100 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

Facharzt FMH Neurochirurgie Study Tips from Top Performers

1Master WHO 2021 CNS Molecular Diagnostics: Be fluent in the integrated diagnostic criteria for adult-type diffuse gliomas (IDH mutation + 1p/19q codeletion = Oligodendroglioma; IDH mutation without codeletion = Astrocytoma; IDH-wildtype with TERT promoter mutation, EGFR amplification, or +7/-10 copy number = Glioblastoma WHO Grade 4 regardless of histologic grade).
2Memorize Vascular Grading Scales & Trial Evidence: Know the exact parameters of Spetzler-Martin (size <3/3-6/>6 cm, eloquence, deep venous drainage), Hunt & Hess, Fisher/modified Fisher, and the indications/timing for aneurysm securing (within 24–72 hours) and delayed cerebral ischemia management (induced hypertension, euvolemia, oral nimodipine).
3Apply Spine Trauma Classifications (AO Spine, TLICS & SLIC): Calculate TLICS points based on morphology (compression=1, burst=2, distraction=3, rotation/translation=4), PLC integrity (intact=0, suspected=2, disrupted=3), and neurology (intact=0, nerve root=2, complete cord=2, incomplete=3, cauda equina=3) to determine operative (≥5) vs non-operative (≤3) management.
4Understand Brain Trauma Foundation ICP/CPP Tiered Protocols: Know the target ICP threshold (<22 mmHg) and CPP target (60–70 mmHg), along with the step-up protocol from sedation/head elevation/CSF drainage to hyperosmolar therapy (3% NaCl vs 20% mannitol), mild-to-moderate hyperventilation (PaCO2 30–35 mmHg), neuromuscular blockade, and decompressive craniectomy.
5Review Pediatric & Functional Neurosurgical Principles: Understand the ETV Success Score components (age, etiology, prior shunt), MOMS trial inclusion/outcomes for fetal myelomeningocele closure, and stereotactic DBS targets (STN for motor fluctuations/dyskinesias, GPi for medication-refractory dyskinesias/dystonia, VIM for tremor).

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the Facharzt FMH für Neurochirurgie specialist title?

The Facharzt FMH für Neurochirurgie is the federally accredited medical specialist title in neurological surgery in Switzerland, granted by SIWF/FMH upon completing at least 6 years of certified postgraduate neurosurgical residency training, maintaining an approved surgical logbook, and successfully passing both the written European EANS Part 1 examination and the Swiss SGNC oral board examination.

How is the Swiss Neurosurgery specialist examination structured?

The examination is divided into two distinct components: 1) The written European Board Examination in Neurological Surgery (EANS Part 1), consisting of 150 multiple-choice questions in English across two papers covering basic neurosciences, neuroanatomy, trauma, vascular, oncology, spine, pediatric, and functional neurosurgery; and 2) The SGNC oral board examination, conducted in Switzerland (Bern), featuring an interactive case-based oral discussion of clinical cases before senior Swiss neurosurgical examiners.

When can candidates sit the EANS Part 1 and SGNC oral examinations?

Trainees typically take the written EANS Part 1 examination in their 4th to 6th year of neurosurgical residency. Passing EANS Part 1 is a mandatory prerequisite for admission to the SGNC oral examination, which is held biannually (spring and autumn) at Inselspital Bern.

What are the core clinical trials and classifications tested on the board?

Key clinical trials include the Stupp protocol (glioblastoma chemoradiation), ISAT (aneurysm coiling vs clipping), ARUBA (unruptured AVMs), STICH/ENRICH/MISTIE (intracerebral hemorrhage surgery), STASCIS (early spinal cord decompression), RESCUEicp and DECRA (decompressive craniectomy in TBI), and the MOMS trial (fetal myelomeningocele repair). Essential classifications include WHO 2021 CNS tumors, Spetzler-Martin AVM, Koos vestibular schwannoma, Hunt-Hess/Fisher SAH, AO Spine and TLICS, ASIA impairment scale, and ETV Success Score.

Why is this practice question bank provided in English?

The official written European Board Examination in Neurological Surgery (EANS Part 1), which is adopted by the SGNC and SIWF as the mandatory written component of the Swiss specialist qualification, is administered entirely in English across Europe. This question bank reflects this official format, testing clinical terminology and evidence-based standards in English.

What are the emergency neurosurgical thresholds in traumatic brain injury?

According to Brain Trauma Foundation guidelines, emergent surgical evacuation is indicated for acute epidural hematomas >30 cm³ (regardless of GCS) or with thickness >15 mm/midline shift >5 mm; acute subdural hematomas with thickness >10 mm or midline shift >5 mm; and open depressed skull fractures deeper than the inner table or with underlying hematoma/dural tear.