How many stations are in the AMC Clinical Examination and how many must I pass?

There are 16 assessed stations (including 2 unscored pilot stations) plus 4 rest stations. Fourteen scored stations count toward your result, and you must pass 9 of 14 to pass overall (lowered from 10 of 14 on 21 March 2024).

How long is each AMC clinical station?

Each station lasts 10 minutes: 2 minutes of reading/changeover time followed by 8 minutes of assessed performance with a simulated patient or examiner.

How much does the AMC Clinical Examination cost in 2026?

The fee is AUD 3,000 for the in-person exam and AUD 3,400 for the online exam, reduced from AUD 3,991 on 1 July 2025. You must pass the AMC CAT MCQ before sitting the clinical exam.

What disciplines and skills are tested?

Stations cover medicine, surgery, women's health, paediatrics and mental health, each with one predominant assessment area: history taking, examination, diagnostic formulation, or management/counselling/education. Performance is rated across 13 domains on a 7-point scale.

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A 30-year-old man with epilepsy controlled on medication asks about driving. According to Austroads/national driving standards principles, what is the doctor's appropriate response?

Advise him of the relevant seizure-free period requirements and the obligation to notify the licensing authority, documenting the discussion

Tell him driving is entirely his choice with no rules

Tell him epilepsy permanently bans all driving

Report him to the police immediately

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Sample AMC Clinical (Part 2 OSCE) Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your AMC Clinical (Part 2 OSCE) exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1In an AMC Clinical OSCE station, each scored station is rated across several assessed domains. A candidate's overall result is determined by how many scored stations, and what is the current pass requirement (effective 21 March 2024)?

A.16 scored stations; pass 10 of 16

B.20 scored stations; pass 12 of 20

C.14 scored stations; pass 9 of 14

D.14 scored stations; pass 10 of 14

Explanation: The AMC Clinical Examination has 16 assessed stations, two of which are unscored pilot stations, leaving 14 scored stations. Since 21 March 2024 the pass requirement was reduced from 10/14 to 9/14, giving candidates slightly more margin while keeping the standard the same.

2Each AMC clinical station runs for a fixed total duration. How is that time divided?

A.5 minutes reading and 5 minutes assessment

B.1 minute reading and 9 minutes assessment

C.3 minutes reading and 7 minutes assessment

D.2 minutes reading and 8 minutes assessment

Explanation: Each AMC clinical station is 10 minutes long: 2 minutes of changeover/reading time to study the candidate stem, followed by 8 minutes of assessed performance with the simulated patient or examiner.

3In each AMC clinical domain (e.g. history taking, diagnosis), candidate performance is rated on a scale. What scale is used and what score constitutes a pass in the global rating?

A.A 5-point scale, where 3 or above is a pass

B.A seven-point scale, where 4 or above is a pass in the global rating

C.A pass/fail tick only, no numeric scale

D.A percentage score, where 60% or above is a pass

Explanation: Each assessed domain is rated on a seven-point scale, but there is no individual pass/fail cut on the domains themselves. The station's global rating uses the same seven-point scale, where 4 or above constitutes a pass for that station.

4A candidate enters a station marked with the predominant assessment area 'history taking'. Which behaviour BEST demonstrates competence the examiner is looking for in this area?

A.Eliciting a focused, hypothesis-driven history that follows the patient's cues and red flags

B.Reciting a fixed checklist of questions regardless of patient cues

C.Spending the full 8 minutes only on the presenting complaint

D.Moving immediately to management before clarifying the problem

Explanation: History-taking stations reward a focused, hypothesis-driven approach: the candidate generates differentials and asks targeted questions, follows verbal and emotional cues, and screens for red flags. A rigid checklist that ignores the patient scores poorly on the 'approach to the patient' domain.

5A 58-year-old man presents with central crushing chest pain radiating to the left arm for 40 minutes, with diaphoresis. His ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. In an Australian emergency setting, what is the most appropriate immediate reperfusion priority?

A.Arrange outpatient stress testing within 72 hours

B.Start oral beta-blocker and discharge with GP follow-up

C.Activate primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) for this inferior STEMI

D.Give a proton pump inhibitor and reassess in 6 hours

Explanation: ST elevation in II, III and aVF indicates an inferior STEMI. The priority is urgent reperfusion, with primary PCI preferred when achievable within target times, otherwise fibrinolysis. Antiplatelets, anticoagulation and analgesia are also given, but reperfusion is the time-critical decision.

6A 24-year-old woman presents to ED with acute severe asthma: respiratory rate 30, unable to complete sentences, SpO2 91% on room air, widespread wheeze. According to Australian asthma management, what is the FIRST-line pharmacological treatment?

A.Intravenous aminophylline as a bolus

B.Oral montelukast and discharge

C.Nebulised adrenaline only

D.Repeated inhaled short-acting beta-agonist (salbutamol) plus controlled oxygen, and systemic corticosteroid

Explanation: Acute severe asthma is treated with repeated or continuous inhaled salbutamol (often with ipratropium), controlled oxygen titrated to SpO2 93-95%, and early systemic corticosteroid. Magnesium sulfate is reserved for severe/life-threatening cases not responding to initial therapy.

7A 45-year-old man with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes has an HbA1c of 8.2% despite lifestyle measures. He has normal renal function and a BMI of 32. Following Australian (RACGP/Diabetes Australia) guidance, which is the preferred first-line glucose-lowering medication?

A.Glibenclamide

B.Insulin glargine

C.Metformin

D.Pioglitazone

Explanation: Metformin is the recommended first-line oral agent for type 2 diabetes in Australia unless contraindicated. It is weight-neutral, has cardiovascular benefit and a low hypoglycaemia risk. SGLT2 inhibitors or GLP-1 agonists are often added or preferred when cardiorenal protection is needed.

8A 70-year-old man presents with sudden painless loss of vision in one eye described as 'a curtain coming down', lasting 5 minutes then resolving fully. He has atrial fibrillation. This amaurosis fugax most strongly indicates which need?

A.Routine optometry review within a month

B.Topical antibiotic drops for presumed conjunctivitis

C.Urgent assessment as a transient ischaemic attack with stroke-prevention work-up

D.Reassurance that migraine aura is the likely cause

Explanation: Transient monocular blindness (amaurosis fugax) is a form of TIA, often embolic. In a patient with AF this is a high-risk warning of impending stroke and warrants urgent assessment, carotid imaging, and review of anticoagulation/antiplatelet therapy.

9A 30-year-old returned traveller from sub-Saharan Africa presents with cyclical fevers, rigors and headache. Thick and thin blood films confirm Plasmodium falciparum. What feature on assessment would classify this as SEVERE malaria requiring intensive management?

A.Impaired consciousness, parasitaemia over 2%, or acidosis/renal impairment

B.Temperature of 38.5 degrees Celsius

C.A single rigor with normal blood pressure

D.Mild headache responding to paracetamol

Explanation: Severe falciparum malaria is defined by end-organ involvement: impaired consciousness/cerebral malaria, high parasitaemia (commonly over 2%), acidosis, acute kidney injury, ARDS, hypoglycaemia, shock or bleeding. Severe disease is treated with IV artesunate, not oral therapy.

10A 65-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of progressive dyspnoea and bilateral ankle oedema. Examination shows a raised JVP, displaced apex beat, bibasal crepitations and a third heart sound. Which single investigation best confirms the underlying diagnosis of heart failure?

A.Transthoracic echocardiogram

B.Chest X-ray alone

C.Spirometry

D.24-hour urinary catecholamines

Explanation: The clinical picture is congestive heart failure. A transthoracic echocardiogram confirms the diagnosis, quantifies ejection fraction (to distinguish HFrEF from HFpEF), and identifies structural/valvular causes, directing evidence-based therapy. BNP/NT-proBNP supports but does not characterise it.

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