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AMC Clinical Examination (Part 2 OSCE)

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Sample AMC CAT MCQ Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the AMC CAT MCQ exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 58-year-old man presents with central crushing chest pain radiating to the left arm for 40 minutes. His ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded?

A.Right coronary artery

B.Left anterior descending artery

C.Left circumflex artery

D.Left main coronary artery

Explanation: ST elevation in the inferior leads (II, III, aVF) indicates an inferior STEMI, most commonly caused by occlusion of the right coronary artery, which supplies the inferior wall in the majority of people. Recognising the territory guides reperfusion and complication monitoring (e.g. bradyarrhythmias).

2A 65-year-old man with type 2 diabetes and an eGFR of 30 mL/min/1.73m2 needs better glycaemic control. Which oral agent is contraindicated and should be avoided?

A.Gliclazide

B.Metformin at high dose

C.Linagliptin

D.A sodium-glucose cotransporter-2 inhibitor for cardiac benefit

Explanation: Metformin is contraindicated when eGFR falls below 30 mL/min/1.73m2 because of the risk of lactic acidosis from impaired renal clearance. Australian guidelines advise reducing or ceasing metformin as eGFR declines and stopping it altogether below 30.

3A 24-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance and constipation. Her TSH is 18 mIU/L and free T4 is low. What is the most appropriate initial management?

A.Carbimazole

B.Radioactive iodine ablation

C.Levothyroxine replacement

D.Propranolol

Explanation: An elevated TSH with low free T4 confirms primary hypothyroidism. The treatment is oral levothyroxine replacement, titrated to normalise the TSH, with symptomatic improvement expected over weeks to months.

4A 70-year-old man presents with worsening exertional dyspnoea and bilateral basal crackles. Echocardiography shows a left ventricular ejection fraction of 30%. Which medication class improves survival in heart failure with reduced ejection fraction?

A.Loop diuretics

B.Calcium channel blockers

C.Digoxin

D.ACE inhibitors

Explanation: ACE inhibitors are a cornerstone of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction and demonstrably reduce mortality and hospitalisation. They are part of the guideline-directed quadruple therapy alongside beta-blockers, mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists and SGLT2 inhibitors.

5A 45-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of polyarthritis affecting the small joints of both hands with early morning stiffness lasting two hours. Which investigation is most specific for rheumatoid arthritis?

A.Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibody

B.Rheumatoid factor

C.Antinuclear antibody

D.Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

Explanation: Anti-CCP antibodies are highly specific (around 95%) for rheumatoid arthritis and are associated with more erosive disease. They are valuable for confirming the diagnosis in early inflammatory polyarthritis with the typical symmetrical small-joint pattern.

6A 30-year-old woman presents with episodic wheeze, chest tightness and nocturnal cough. Spirometry shows an FEV1/FVC ratio of 0.65 that improves by 15% after salbutamol. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A.Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

B.Asthma

C.Bronchiectasis

D.Pulmonary fibrosis

Explanation: Episodic respiratory symptoms with variable, reversible airflow obstruction (>=12% and 200 mL improvement in FEV1 after bronchodilator) is diagnostic of asthma. The young age and reversibility distinguish it from fixed obstructive disease.

7A 55-year-old man with a 40-pack-year smoking history presents with chronic productive cough and progressive breathlessness. Spirometry confirms post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC of 0.6. Which intervention most reduces mortality and disease progression?

A.Inhaled corticosteroids

B.Regular oral prednisolone

C.Smoking cessation

D.Theophylline

Explanation: Smoking cessation is the single most effective intervention in COPD, slowing the accelerated decline in lung function and improving survival. All other treatments are symptomatic and do not match its impact on disease progression.

8A 68-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of right-sided weakness and expressive dysphasia 90 minutes ago. A non-contrast CT brain shows no haemorrhage. What is the most appropriate immediate management?

A.Aspirin 300 mg only

B.Commence warfarin

C.Carotid endarterectomy

D.Intravenous thrombolysis with alteplase

Explanation: In acute ischaemic stroke presenting within 4.5 hours with no haemorrhage on CT and no contraindications, intravenous thrombolysis with alteplase improves functional outcomes. Time is critical, so eligible patients should be treated as soon as possible.

9A 22-year-old man presents with a generalised tonic-clonic seizure. He has had two unprovoked seizures in the past year. MRI brain and EEG are consistent with idiopathic generalised epilepsy. Which is an appropriate first-line antiepileptic?

A.Sodium valproate

B.Carbamazepine

C.Phenytoin

D.Vigabatrin

Explanation: Sodium valproate is highly effective first-line therapy for idiopathic generalised epilepsy with generalised tonic-clonic seizures. It is avoided in women of childbearing potential because of teratogenicity, but is appropriate for this young man.

10A 40-year-old woman presents with intermittent epigastric pain relieved by eating and worse at night. A urea breath test is positive. What is the most appropriate management?

A.Proton pump inhibitor alone for 8 weeks

B.Triple therapy with a PPI plus amoxicillin and clarithromycin

C.Surgical vagotomy

D.Antacids as required

Explanation: The clinical picture suggests a duodenal ulcer and the positive urea breath test confirms Helicobacter pylori infection. First-line eradication is a 7-day course of a PPI combined with amoxicillin and clarithromycin, which heals the ulcer and prevents recurrence.

About the AMC CAT MCQ Exam

The AMC CAT MCQ is the written assessment in the Standard Pathway for international medical graduates. It assesses knowledge and clinical judgement at the level of an Australian medical graduate about to begin internship.

Exam sponsor: Australian Medical Council (AMC), delivered by Pearson VUE. The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

Computer adaptive test with 150 scored single-best-answer questions, each with five options, in one session.

Time Limit

3.5 hours

Passing Score

Scaled score 0–500; 250 is the reported pass mark. The AMC raised the underlying pass standard slightly from 2026; this is not a percentage-correct threshold.

Exam / Certification Fees

AUD 2,920 for the MCQ examination, checked 7 October 2026; portfolio and credential verification have separate charges.

Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Official sources

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

30%

Adult Health - Medicine

Internal and general medicine across adult and aged care, including cardiology, respiratory, endocrinology, gastroenterology, neurology, renal, rheumatology, haematology and infectious disease.

20%

Adult Health - Surgery

General, vascular, urological, breast, colorectal and trauma surgery, the acute abdomen and perioperative management.

12.5%

Women's Health - Obstetrics & Gynaecology

Antenatal and intrapartum care, obstetric emergencies and gynaecological conditions, including early pregnancy, contraception and cervical screening.

12.5%

Child Health

Paediatric and developmental medicine from fetal development through childhood, common and serious paediatric presentations and child protection.

12.5%

Mental Health

Assessment, diagnosis and management of psychological, behavioural and mental disorders, including risk assessment and psychopharmacology.

12.5%

Population Health and Ethics

Screening, immunisation, epidemiology, notifiable diseases, Indigenous health equity, consent, capacity, confidentiality and professional ethics.

Preparing for the AMC CAT MCQ Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: Scaled score 0–500; 250 is the reported pass mark. The AMC raised the underlying pass standard slightly from 2026; this is not a percentage-correct threshold.
Assessment: Computer adaptive test with 150 scored single-best-answer questions, each with five options, in one session.
Time limit: 3.5 hours
Exam / certification fees: AUD 2,920 for the MCQ examination, checked 7 October 2026; portfolio and credential verification have separate charges. Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

Work through all 100 available questions
Review every answer and explanation
Track weak areas and revisit them
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AMC CAT MCQ: Suggested Study Strategy

1Study to the AMC MCQ blueprint: weight your revision toward Adult Health-Medicine (30%) and Surgery (20%), then spread time evenly across obstetrics & gynaecology, paediatrics, mental health and population health & ethics.

2Practise applied clinical-reasoning vignettes rather than rote recall, since the adaptive format rewards choosing the single best management or diagnosis from plausible options.

3Use Australian standards (Therapeutic Guidelines, the National Immunisation Program, the National Cervical and Bowel Cancer Screening Programs) and include ethics, consent and Indigenous health, which are explicitly examined.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the format and passing score?

The examination contains 150 scored questions, each with five options and one best answer, in 3.5 hours. It uses computer adaptive testing; submitted answers cannot be revisited. Scores run from 0 to 500 with a reported pass mark of 250. A small increase in the underlying pass standard took effect in 2026; 250 is not 50% correct.

Which subjects are assessed?

The specifications allocate 30% to adult medicine, 20% to adult surgery, and 12.5% each to women’s health, child health, mental health and population health/ethics. Questions test gathering information, interpreting and synthesising it, and managing patients. Percentages are blueprint allocations, not a promised count of items in an individual adaptive test.

Who is eligible and how are qualifications verified?

Check the AMC eligibility tool for your medical school, exact degree title and graduation year. Establish an AMC account and portfolio and arrange primary source verification through ECFMG’s MyIntealth platform. Follow the current AMC document and identification instructions before purchasing authorisation and scheduling.

What does the examination cost and where is it delivered?

The MCQ examination fee is AUD 2,920 as checked on 7 October 2026. Portfolio and ECFMG verification charges are additional. Delivery is at Pearson VUE test centres. An MCQ authorisation lasts 12 months; use the AMC scheduling page for current seats and dates.