100+ Free ADC Written Exam Practice Questions

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A 5-year-old has a deep carious lesion in a primary second molar with a vital, asymptomatic pulp where caries removal risks exposure. Current evidence supports which biologically conservative approach for primary molars?

A pulpotomy if the pulp is exposed, or selective caries removal with a well-sealed restoration if vital and asymptomatic

Leaving the lesion untreated until the tooth exfoliates

Full pulpectomy of all canals regardless of pulpal status

Immediate extraction of the primary molar

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Sample ADC Written Exam Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your ADC Written Exam exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 28-year-old presents with a small occlusal carious lesion on tooth 36 that is confined to enamel and dentine but has not yet cavitated radiographically on the proximal surface. The patient has good oral hygiene and a low caries risk. According to contemporary minimal-intervention principles taught in Australian dental programs, what is the most appropriate management of this early occlusal lesion?

A.Place a preventive resin restoration or seal the affected fissure after minimal caries removal

B.Prepare a full-coverage stainless steel crown to prevent further breakdown

C.Remove the entire occlusal surface and place an amalgam restoration

D.Extract the tooth to eliminate the caries risk

Explanation: Minimal-intervention dentistry favours preserving sound tooth structure. An early, non-cavitated or minimally cavitated occlusal lesion in a low-risk patient is best managed conservatively with a fissure sealant or preventive resin restoration after removing only the demineralised tissue. This arrests progression while conserving structure.

2When placing a posterior resin composite restoration, a candidate notes that the deepest portion of the proximal box lies more than 4 mm below the cavosurface margin. Which incremental placement strategy best limits polymerisation shrinkage stress and ensures adequate cure at the gingival floor?

A.Bulk-fill the entire cavity with a conventional microhybrid composite in one increment

B.Fill the box with flowable composite to the cavosurface margin in a single application

C.Place oblique increments no thicker than 2 mm and cure each separately, or use a validated bulk-fill material to the depth specified by the manufacturer

D.Leave the gingival floor unfilled and restore only the occlusal portion

Explanation: Conventional composites should be placed in increments of 2 mm or less to ensure complete polymerisation and reduce C-factor shrinkage stress, especially deep in a proximal box. Validated bulk-fill composites may be placed in larger increments only to the depth the manufacturer has shown achieves adequate cure.

3A patient has a deep carious lesion on tooth 46 with no spontaneous pain; the tooth responds normally to cold and there are no periapical changes radiographically. During excavation you reach a point where further removal would likely expose the pulp. What is the most evidence-based approach in line with current vital pulp therapy concepts?

A.Complete the cavity by fully removing all stained dentine regardless of pulp exposure risk

B.Place a temporary dressing and review in 12 months before any restoration

C.Initiate root canal treatment immediately as the pulp is certainly necrotic

D.Perform selective (partial) caries removal over the pulpal area, leaving firm affected dentine, then seal with a biocompatible liner and definitive restoration

Explanation: For a deep lesion in an asymptomatic tooth with a vital pulp, selective caries removal to firm dentine over the pulp avoids exposure and preserves pulp vitality. Leaving affected (but not infected) dentine and sealing it with a biocompatible material and a well-sealed restoration is supported by current evidence.

4Which property of glass-ionomer cement makes it particularly useful for restoring cervical lesions in a patient with high caries risk and poor moisture control?

A.It bonds only through micromechanical etch-and-rinse adhesion

B.It chemically bonds to tooth structure and releases fluoride, with relative tolerance of moisture during placement

C.It has the highest wear resistance of all direct restorative materials

D.It is radiolucent, allowing easy detection of recurrent caries

Explanation: Glass-ionomer cement forms a chemical (ionic) bond to enamel and dentine and releases fluoride, which benefits high-caries-risk patients. It is also more tolerant of a moist field than resin composite, making it useful for cervical lesions where isolation is difficult.

5A 55-year-old needs a full-coverage crown on a heavily restored, root-filled premolar 14 with limited remaining coronal tooth structure. To improve retention and protect the remaining structure, which feature is most important to incorporate into the restorative plan?

A.Maximum taper of the preparation walls to ease seating

B.A wide, flat shoulder margin extending well subgingivally on all surfaces

C.A 1 mm ferrule of sound tooth structure encircled by the crown margin

D.Removal of all remaining dentine to seat a post as deeply as possible

Explanation: A ferrule of at least 1.5-2 mm of sound axial tooth structure encircled by the crown (a minimum 1 mm is the lower threshold) significantly improves fracture resistance of endodontically treated teeth. It allows the crown to brace the remaining tooth and reduces stress on any post.

6A patient presents with generalised tooth wear and reports frequent consumption of acidic soft drinks and a history of gastro-oesophageal reflux. The wear has smooth, cupped occlusal surfaces with no obvious facets. What is the most likely predominant aetiology of this tooth surface loss?

A.Attrition from bruxism

B.Abfraction from occlusal loading

C.Abrasion from a hard toothbrush

D.Erosion from intrinsic and extrinsic acids

Explanation: Smooth, cupped (concave) occlusal lesions with loss of surface anatomy and no sharp wear facets are characteristic of erosion. The history of acidic drinks (extrinsic acid) and gastro-oesophageal reflux (intrinsic acid) strongly supports an erosive aetiology.

7During etch-and-rinse bonding to dentine, over-drying the etched dentine surface before applying adhesive most commonly leads to which problem?

A.Collapse of the demineralised collagen network, impairing resin infiltration and reducing bond strength

B.Excessive smear layer formation that blocks the tubules

C.Complete remineralisation of the etched dentine before bonding

D.Increased bond strength due to a drier bonding substrate

Explanation: In etch-and-rinse (total-etch) bonding to dentine, the exposed collagen network must remain moist. Over-drying collapses the collagen scaffold, preventing the adhesive resin from infiltrating to form a proper hybrid layer, which lowers bond strength and increases post-operative sensitivity.

8A patient reports brief, sharp sensitivity to cold and sweet stimuli on multiple exposed cervical root surfaces, which resolves immediately when the stimulus is removed. There is no caries and the teeth respond within normal limits to pulp testing. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A.Irreversible pulpitis

B.Cracked tooth syndrome

C.Dentine hypersensitivity

D.Acute apical periodontitis

Explanation: Short, sharp pain in response to thermal, evaporative, or osmotic (sweet) stimuli that resolves immediately on stimulus removal, affecting exposed cervical dentine with no other pathology, is the classic presentation of dentine hypersensitivity, explained by the hydrodynamic theory of fluid movement in dentinal tubules.

9A rubber dam is being placed for a class II composite on tooth 26. The patient discloses a confirmed type I (latex) hypersensitivity. What is the most appropriate action?

A.Proceed with a standard latex rubber dam but work quickly to minimise exposure

B.Use a non-latex (nitrile or silicone) rubber dam and confirm gloves and other materials are latex-free

C.Abandon isolation entirely and place the restoration without a rubber dam

D.Pre-medicate the patient with an antihistamine and use the latex dam as normal

Explanation: A patient with a confirmed type I latex allergy must not be exposed to latex products. A non-latex (nitrile or silicone) rubber dam should be used together with non-latex gloves and latex-free ancillary items to provide effective moisture control safely.

10A new amalgam restoration is placed on tooth 37 adjacent to a recently placed gold onlay on tooth 36. Within a day the patient reports a sharp metallic taste and a brief electric-shock sensation when the two restorations touch. What phenomenon is responsible?

A.Galvanic shock from dissimilar metals creating an electric current in saliva

B.Pulpal hyperaemia from the amalgam condensation

C.Allergic contact reaction to mercury

D.Cracked tooth syndrome in tooth 37

Explanation: When two dissimilar metals (here amalgam and gold) contact in the moist oral environment, saliva acts as an electrolyte and a small galvanic current is generated, producing a sharp metallic taste and brief shock when they touch. The sensation typically settles as surface oxides form.

About the ADC Written Exam Exam

The ADC Written Examination is the second stage of the Australian Dental Council assessment pathway for overseas-qualified dentists. It is a computer-based, scenario-based MCQ exam of 280 questions delivered at Pearson VUE centres across four 2-hour sections over two consecutive days, testing the science and practice of dentistry and clinical judgement for safe Australian practice.

Assessment

Four 2-hour sections of 70 scenario-based multiple-choice questions each (280 total) over two consecutive days.

Time Limit

Four 2-hour sections (8 hours total) across two consecutive days

Passing Score

Must achieve a grade of A or B in each of the four written examination clusters; the ADC does not publish a fixed numeric percentage pass mark

Exam Fee

AUD 2,122 (2026 written examination application fee) (Australian Dental Council (ADC), delivered with Pearson VUE)

ADC Written Exam Exam Content Outline

12%

Restorative Dentistry (incl. fixed prosthodontics)

Minimal-intervention caries care, direct/indirect restorations, materials, tooth wear and adhesion.

10%

Pharmacology

Local anaesthetics, analgesia, antibiotics and stewardship, anticoagulants and drug safety.

General Medicine (incl. emergencies and special needs)

Medical emergencies, medically compromised and special-needs patients, pregnancy and cardiac risk.

Oral Medicine and Oral Pathology

Mucosal disease, potentially malignant disorders, oral cancer referral, cysts and lesions.

Endodontics

Pulpal/periapical diagnosis, working length, irrigation, obturation and trauma.

Oral Surgery

Extractions, third molar surgery, nerve injury, oroantral communication and infections.

Paediatric Dentistry and Orthodontics

Primary-tooth therapy, prevention, space management, malocclusion and behaviour guidance.

Periodontics

Periodontal diagnosis, staging/grading, non-surgical and regenerative therapy and maintenance.

Preventive Dentistry

Fluoride, caries-risk assessment, diet, remineralisation, sealants and health promotion.

Dental Emergencies

Acute pain and infection, trauma, cracked teeth, abscess drainage and bleeding control.

Pain and Behaviour Management

Anxiety and sedation, temporomandibular disorders, consent and communication.

Removable Prosthodontics

Complete and partial denture design, retention and adjustment of problems.

Radiography

Radiation protection/ALARA, intraoral techniques, view selection and interpretation.

Infection Prevention and Control

Standard precautions, reprocessing, sterilisation and cross-infection control.

Implants (subdiscipline)

Implant assessment and planning, peri-implant health and peri-implantitis.

How to Pass the ADC Written Exam Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: Must achieve a grade of A or B in each of the four written examination clusters; the ADC does not publish a fixed numeric percentage pass mark
Assessment: Four 2-hour sections of 70 scenario-based multiple-choice questions each (280 total) over two consecutive days.
Time limit: Four 2-hour sections (8 hours total) across two consecutive days
Exam fee: AUD 2,122 (2026 written examination application fee)

Keys to Passing

Complete 500+ practice questions
Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
Focus on highest-weighted sections
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

ADC Written Exam Study Tips from Top Performers

1Study to the blueprint weightings: the heaviest discipline loads (restorative, pharmacology, general medicine, oral medicine and pathology) deserve the most scenario practice, while lighter areas still need coverage.

2Practise applied clinical reasoning rather than rote recall, since every item is a scenario-based single-best-answer question reflecting safe Australian practice standards and current guidelines.

3Anchor your answers in Australian-specific guidance (antimicrobial stewardship, anticoagulant bleeding management, infective endocarditis prophylaxis and fluoride recommendations) rather than the conventions of your country of training.

Frequently Asked Questions

How many questions are on the ADC Written Examination and how long is it?

The ADC Written Examination has 280 scenario-based multiple-choice questions, delivered as four 2-hour sections of 70 questions each across two consecutive days at Pearson VUE test centres.

What is the pass standard for the ADC Written Examination?

Candidates must achieve a grade of A or B in each of the four written examination clusters. The ADC does not publish a single fixed numeric percentage pass mark; results are processed and released by the ADC, not Pearson VUE.

How much does the ADC Written Examination cost in 2026?

The 2026 written examination application fee listed by the ADC is AUD 2,122. This is separate from the initial assessment fee and the later practical examination fee.

What topics does the ADC Written Examination cover?

The blueprint covers the science and practice of dentistry across disciplines such as restorative dentistry, pharmacology, general medicine, oral medicine and pathology, endodontics, oral surgery, paediatric dentistry and orthodontics, periodontics, preventive dentistry, prosthodontics, radiography and infection control, with implants and pharmacology assessed as subdisciplines.