How is the ADC Practical Examination structured?

It is a two-day, station-based assessment at the ADC Examination Centre in Melbourne. One day focuses on technical skills (typodont-based preparations and restorations) and the other on OSCE-style clinical stations covering history, diagnosis, treatment planning and communication. The ADC indicates candidates manage about 3 cases and 8 tasks in total.

How much does the ADC Practical Examination cost in 2026?

The Australian Dental Council lists the practical examination application fee at AUD 4,775 for 2026. Candidates should also budget for travel and accommodation in Melbourne, as the examination is held in person.

What is the pass standard for the ADC Practical Examination?

The examination is competency-based against the standard of a newly qualified Australian dentist. Assessors use global rating scales and checklists, and candidates must pass the assessed clusters; critical errors such as infection-control or safety breaches can cause an overall fail regardless of technical performance.

Who delivers the ADC Practical Examination?

The Australian Dental Council (ADC) administers and delivers the Practical Examination at its own Examination Centre in Melbourne. This differs from the ADC Written Examination, which is delivered through Pearson VUE test centres.

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A simulated patient on a diagnosis station has a white, wipeable pseudomembranous lesion on the buccal mucosa and palate; they use an inhaled corticosteroid. Which condition is most likely and what is the appropriate next step?

Pseudomembranous candidiasis (thrush); advise rinsing/spacer use after the inhaler and consider antifungal therapy

Squamous cell carcinoma requiring immediate excision

Lichen planus requiring topical steroids only

Leukoplakia requiring urgent biopsy

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Sample ADC Practical Exam Practice Questions

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1During the Technical Skills Day, you are preparing a Class II cavity on a typodont molar for amalgam. To create adequate resistance and retention form, what is the recommended pulpal floor depth and the ideal cavosurface margin angle for the occlusal portion?

A.Pulpal floor ~0.5 mm into enamel with a 45-degree bevelled margin

B.Pulpal floor ~3.5 mm into the pulp chamber with a feather-edge margin

C.Pulpal floor ~1.5-2 mm into dentine with a 90-degree (butt-joint) cavosurface margin

D.Pulpal floor ~1 mm above the enamel-dentine junction with a 120-degree margin

Explanation: Amalgam is a brittle, non-bonded material that requires bulk and a butt-joint (90-degree cavosurface) margin to resist fracture at the margins. A pulpal floor approximately 1.5-2 mm deep (about 0.5 mm into dentine past the EDJ) provides sufficient amalgam thickness for strength while preserving pulp vitality.

2In the ADC Practical Examination, infection control is assessed as a global skill across all stations. A candidate completes an excellent composite restoration but recaps a local anaesthetic needle using a two-handed technique. How is this most likely to affect the result?

A.It can cause a fail because critical infection-control/sharps breaches override technical performance

B.It is ignored because the restoration itself was high quality

C.It results in a minor deduction that is easily offset by good technical work

D.It only matters if the candidate actually sustains a needlestick injury

Explanation: Infection control is a global (cross-cutting) skill in the ADC Practical Examination, and serious breaches such as unsafe sharps handling can cause an overall fail regardless of technical excellence. Needles must be recapped single-handed using a scoop technique or a needle guard, never two-handed.

3You are placing a posterior resin composite restoration on a typodont during the Technical Skills Day. To minimise polymerisation shrinkage stress and marginal gap formation, which placement strategy is most appropriate?

A.Bulk-fill the entire cavity in one increment and cure for 5 seconds

B.Place a single 4 mm increment of conventional (non-bulk-fill) composite

C.Fill the cavity completely then light-cure only the final surface layer

D.Place in increments of approximately 2 mm or less and cure each layer adequately

Explanation: Conventional resin composites should be placed in increments of about 2 mm or less so that light penetrates fully and polymerisation shrinkage stress is reduced, limiting marginal gaps and post-operative sensitivity. Each increment must be cured for the manufacturer-recommended time with adequate light intensity.

4A simulated patient on Clinical Skills Day reports a dull, poorly localised ache in the lower right quadrant that is worse with hot drinks and lingers for several minutes after the stimulus is removed. There is a deep restoration on the lower right first molar. Which diagnosis best fits this history?

A.Reversible pulpitis

B.Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis

C.Acute apical abscess

D.Cracked cusp with no pulpal involvement

Explanation: Lingering pain to thermal stimuli (especially heat) that persists after the stimulus is removed, with poor localisation, is characteristic of symptomatic irreversible pulpitis. The deep restoration is a plausible source of pulpal insult. Localising the offending tooth often requires further testing.

5On the Technical Skills Day you must perform an endodontic access cavity preparation on a maxillary first molar typodont. How many canals should you typically expect to locate, and which canal is most commonly missed?

A.Two canals; the palatal canal is most commonly missed

B.One canal; there is rarely a second canal in this tooth

C.Three or four canals; the second mesiobuccal (MB2) canal is most commonly missed

D.Five canals; the distobuccal canal is most commonly missed

Explanation: Maxillary first molars usually have three roots and three to four canals: mesiobuccal (often with an MB2), distobuccal and palatal. The second mesiobuccal (MB2) canal is the most frequently missed canal and a common cause of endodontic failure, so the access outline should be extended to allow its location.

6When isolating a tooth for a resin composite restoration during the practical examination, what is the single most important reason rubber dam placement is favoured and frequently assessed?

A.It speeds up the appointment so more teeth can be treated

B.It eliminates the need for local anaesthesia

C.It removes the requirement to use a matrix band for Class II cavities

D.It provides moisture control and a clean operative field, improving bond reliability and protecting the airway

Explanation: Rubber dam isolation controls moisture and contamination, which is critical for predictable adhesive bonding, and it protects the patient's airway from aspiration or ingestion of instruments and materials. These safety and quality benefits are why isolation technique is commonly assessed.

7A patient presents for a clinical-information-gathering OSCE station. Before any examination, which approach best reflects person-centred care as defined in the ADC professional competencies?

A.Take a structured history including the presenting complaint, medical, dental and social history, and the patient's concerns and expectations

B.Begin charting immediately to save time and ask questions only if something looks abnormal

C.Focus exclusively on the tooth the patient points to and ignore systemic factors

D.Ask the patient to fill in a form and proceed without verbal discussion

Explanation: Person-centred care under the ADC competencies requires structured clinical information gathering: the presenting complaint and its history, plus medical, dental and social histories, and an understanding of the patient's concerns and expectations. This forms the basis for safe diagnosis and shared decision-making.

8During a Technical Skills Day preparation task you are cutting a crown preparation on a premolar typodont for a full-coverage ceramic crown. Which total occlusal convergence (taper) of the axial walls best balances retention and a path of insertion?

A.0 degrees (perfectly parallel walls)

B.Approximately 6-10 degrees total convergence

C.Approximately 30-40 degrees total convergence

D.Approximately 60 degrees total convergence

Explanation: An ideal full-coverage crown preparation aims for roughly 6-10 degrees of total occlusal convergence. This taper provides good retention and resistance form while still allowing a clean path of insertion and seating without undercuts. Excessive taper compromises retention.

9A simulated patient on a diagnosis station has a localised 6 mm periodontal pocket with bleeding on probing, no mobility, and radiographic bone loss confined to that site on a lower molar. What is the most appropriate initial management?

A.Immediate extraction of the tooth

B.Systemic antibiotics alone with no mechanical therapy

C.Immediate periodontal flap surgery before any non-surgical treatment

D.Non-surgical periodontal therapy (subgingival debridement) with oral hygiene instruction and review

Explanation: The first-line management of periodontitis is non-surgical: thorough subgingival instrumentation (debridement/root surface debridement) plus oral hygiene instruction and risk-factor control, followed by re-evaluation. Surgery or extraction is considered only if non-surgical therapy fails to resolve the pocket.

10You are taking a periapical radiograph at an OSCE station using the paralleling technique. Which statement correctly describes the principle of this technique?

A.The beam bisects the angle between the film and the tooth long axis

B.The film is placed touching the tooth surface at 45 degrees with no holder

C.The film/sensor is placed parallel to the tooth long axis and the beam is directed at right angles to both

D.The tube head is angled steeply downward to foreshorten the image deliberately

Explanation: In the paralleling technique the receptor is positioned parallel to the long axis of the tooth using a beam-aiming holder, and the X-ray beam is directed perpendicular to both the tooth and the receptor. This produces minimal geometric distortion and a dimensionally accurate image.

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