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100+ Free SM Practice Questions

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An antibiogram (cumulative susceptibility report) should be updated at least:

A
B
C
D
to track
2026 Statistics

Key Facts: SM Exam

100

Total Items

ASCP BOC

2h 30m

Exam Time

ASCP

CLSI M100

Annual Breakpoints

Most-tested standard

BSL-2/3

Biosafety Level

Routine vs TB/select agents

The ASCP SM (Specialist in Microbiology) is a Specialist-level BOC credential. 100 MCQ items, 2h 30m, ~$270 fee. Eligibility: doctorate + 2 yrs OR master's + 3 yrs micro experience. Master CLSI breakpoints (M100), Gram stain interpretation, organism ID by biochemicals + MALDI-TOF, antimicrobial resistance mechanisms, and CDC sentinel laboratory rule-outs (Brucella, Bacillus anthracis, Yersinia pestis).

Sample SM Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your SM exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A blood culture from a patient with endocarditis grows Gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase positive, coagulase positive, and resistant to cefoxitin on disk diffusion. Which gene is most likely responsible for the resistance phenotype?
A.mecA
B.vanA
C.blaZ
D.ermC
Explanation: Cefoxitin disk resistance in Staphylococcus aureus is the surrogate marker for methicillin (oxacillin) resistance and is mediated by mecA, which encodes the altered penicillin-binding protein PBP2a. mecC is a less common alternative.
2A urine culture from a sexually active 19-year-old woman grows >100,000 CFU/mL of a Gram-positive coccus that is catalase negative, coagulase negative, and resistant to novobiocin. The most likely organism is:
A.Staphylococcus epidermidis
B.Staphylococcus saprophyticus
C.Enterococcus faecalis
D.Streptococcus agalactiae
Explanation: Staphylococcus saprophyticus is novobiocin resistant and is a leading cause of uncomplicated UTI in young, sexually active females.
3A throat swab from a child with pharyngitis grows beta-hemolytic, catalase-negative, Gram-positive cocci that are bacitracin susceptible and PYR positive. The organism is:
A.Streptococcus agalactiae
B.Streptococcus pyogenes
C.Streptococcus pneumoniae
D.Enterococcus faecalis
Explanation: Streptococcus pyogenes (group A) is bacitracin susceptible and PYR positive, distinguishing it from other beta-hemolytic streptococci.
4Identification of Streptococcus pneumoniae from sputum is best supported by which combination of test results?
A.Beta-hemolysis, bacitracin susceptible, PYR positive
B.Alpha-hemolysis, optochin susceptible, bile soluble
C.Alpha-hemolysis, optochin resistant, bile insoluble
D.Gamma-hemolysis, bile-esculin positive, 6.5% NaCl growth
Explanation: S. pneumoniae is alpha-hemolytic, susceptible to optochin (P disk), and soluble in bile (sodium deoxycholate lyses the cells).
5A blood culture isolate of Enterococcus faecium is reported as vancomycin MIC >32 µg/mL and teicoplanin MIC >32 µg/mL. The most likely resistance gene is:
A.vanA
B.vanB
C.vanC
D.vanD
Explanation: vanA confers high-level resistance to both vancomycin and teicoplanin and is inducible. vanB confers variable vancomycin resistance but the isolate remains teicoplanin susceptible.
6Listeria monocytogenes is best distinguished from group B Streptococcus by which feature?
A.Beta-hemolysis on blood agar
B.Catalase positivity and tumbling motility at 25°C
C.Gram-positive coccobacillary morphology
D.Esculin hydrolysis
Explanation: Listeria is catalase positive (streptococci are catalase negative) and shows characteristic tumbling motility in broth at 22-25°C but not at 35-37°C.
7A wound culture from a sheep farmer grows large, Gram-positive rods that produce a 'medusa-head' colony, are non-motile, and produce a capsule. The most likely organism is:
A.Bacillus cereus
B.Bacillus anthracis
C.Clostridium perfringens
D.Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Explanation: B. anthracis is non-motile, capsule-producing, and forms 'medusa-head' or 'curled-hair' colonies. Encountered in livestock-associated infections; sentinel labs alert to LRN.
8A CSF Gram stain from an unvaccinated infant shows Gram-negative diplococci. Growth occurs on chocolate agar but not on Thayer-Martin selective medium because the organism is inhibited by vancomycin. The most likely identification is:
A.Neisseria meningitidis
B.Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C.Moraxella catarrhalis
D.Haemophilus influenzae
Explanation: Some N. meningitidis strains are inhibited by the vancomycin in Thayer-Martin/Martin-Lewis. CSF Gram-negative diplococci in an infant is highly suggestive of meningococcal meningitis.
9A urine isolate of E. coli has MIC values: ceftriaxone 16 µg/mL, ceftazidime 8 µg/mL, and cefotaxime + clavulanate shows >=3 doubling-dilution decrease versus cefotaxime alone. This phenotype indicates:
A.AmpC hyperproduction
B.Carbapenemase (KPC) production
C.Extended-spectrum beta-lactamase (ESBL) production
D.Porin loss only
Explanation: ESBLs hydrolyze extended-spectrum cephalosporins and are inhibited by clavulanic acid; the >=3 dilution drop in MIC with clavulanate is the CLSI confirmatory criterion.
10Which test is the CLSI-recommended phenotypic confirmation for carbapenemase production in Enterobacterales?
A.D-test
B.Modified Hodge test (MHT)
C.Modified Carbapenem Inactivation Method (mCIM)
D.Cefoxitin disk
Explanation: mCIM (with eCIM to differentiate metallo-beta-lactamases) replaced the modified Hodge test as the CLSI-recommended phenotypic carbapenemase confirmation.

About the SM Exam

ASCP BOC Specialist-level credential for senior clinical microbiology technologists. Validates expertise across bacteriology (Gram positive/negative/anaerobic/mycobacteria), mycology, parasitology, virology, antimicrobial susceptibility (CLSI breakpoints, ESBL/CRE detection, MRSA, VRE), molecular methods (MALDI-TOF, NAAT panels), and laboratory management.

Questions

100 scored questions

Time Limit

2 hours 30 minutes

Passing Score

Scaled

Exam Fee

~$270 (effective Jan 2026) (ASCP BOC)

SM Exam Content Outline

30%

Bacteriology (Gram+/Gram-/Anaerobic/Mycobacteria)

Staph, Strep, Enterococcus, Enterobacterales, Pseudomonas, anaerobes, M. tuberculosis

12%

Mycology

Yeasts (Candida, Cryptococcus), dimorphic fungi, dermatophytes, Aspergillus, Mucorales

10%

Parasitology

Protozoa (Plasmodium, Giardia, Cryptosporidium), helminths (Ascaris, Taenia, Schistosoma)

13%

Virology

HIV, HCV, HBV, HSV/VZV/CMV/EBV, influenza, RSV, COVID-19

15%

Antimicrobial Susceptibility & Stewardship

CLSI breakpoints, ESBL/CRE/KPC, MRSA, VRE, D-test

10%

Methods, MALDI-TOF, Molecular

Blood culture, MALDI-TOF, NAAT, 16S rRNA, WGS

10%

Lab Management, QC, Safety, Outbreak

BSL-2/3, CAP/CLIA, sentinel labs, antibiogram

How to Pass the SM Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Scaled
  • Exam length: 100 questions
  • Time limit: 2 hours 30 minutes
  • Exam fee: ~$270 (effective Jan 2026)

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

SM Study Tips from Top Performers

1Master Gram positive ID: Staph (catalase+/coag+ for S aureus); Strep (catalase-/bacitracin S Group A; optochin S pneumococcus; CAMP+ Group B); Enterococcus (PYR+, growth in 6.5% NaCl, bile esculin+)
2Know carbapenemases: KPC (most common US), NDM, VIM, IMP, OXA-48; detection methods (Carba NP, mCIM, NG-Test CARBA-5)
3Memorize CLSI M100 vancomycin Enterococcus breakpoints + vanA (high-level) vs vanB (varies)
4Understand AFB workup: smear (Z-N or auramine fluorescence) + culture (LJ + MGIT) + NAAT (Xpert MTB/RIF)
5Recognize CDC sentinel-lab rule-outs: Brucella (small G-, slow grower, tube agglutination — ALERT, BSL-3); Bacillus anthracis (large box-car G+ rods, non-motile, non-hemolytic — ALERT)

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the difference between SM and the base M credential?

SM (Specialist in Microbiology) is the senior, supervisory credential requiring doctorate + 2 yrs or master's + 3 yrs experience. M(ASCP) is the entry-level Microbiology Technologist credential. SM tests advanced topics including antimicrobial stewardship, lab management, and complex case workups.

What CLSI document is most important?

CLSI M100 (Performance Standards for Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing) is updated annually with current breakpoints. Other key documents: M07 (broth dilution methods), M02 (disk diffusion), M27 (yeast antifungal), M61 (mold antifungal), M39 (antibiogram). Know the difference between FDA-approved breakpoints (older) vs CLSI breakpoints (current).

How is MRSA detected?

MRSA (methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus) is detected via cefoxitin disk diffusion (≥22 mm = susceptible; ≤21 mm = resistant) — cefoxitin better induces mecA expression than oxacillin. Confirmatory: PCR for mecA/mecC; PBP2a latex agglutination. MRSA screening commonly nasal swab NAAT.

How should I study for ASCP SM?

Plan 60-100 hours over 8-12 weeks. Focus heaviest on Bacteriology (30%) — master Gram stain interpretation, biochemical identification, MALDI-TOF. Cover Antimicrobial Susceptibility (15%) with CLSI M100 breakpoints, resistance mechanisms (ESBL, AmpC, carbapenemases KPC/NDM/OXA-48), and ASTs.