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Why is it important to fill an LN2 dewar with the appropriate volume of liquid nitrogen before storing samples?

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Key Facts: QBRS Exam

50

Total Items

ASCP BOC

90 min

Exam Time

ASCP

$260

Exam Fee

ASCP

ISO 20387

Biobanking Standard

International

The ASCP QBRS (Qualification in Biorepository Science) is a 50-item, 90-minute, $260 qualification exam. Co-offered with ISBER. Eligibility: 1 year biorepository experience. Master ISBER Best Practices 5th edition, ISO 20387 biobanking standard, cryopreservation (DMSO 5-10%, controlled-rate 1°C/min freezing), HIPAA Safe Harbor 18 identifiers, and IRB/Common Rule (45 CFR 46) requirements.

Sample QBRS Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your QBRS exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A biorepository is collecting whole blood for downstream genomic DNA extraction from buffy coat. Which anticoagulant tube is the BEST choice?
A.Lavender-top EDTA tube
B.Light-blue-top sodium citrate tube
C.Green-top lithium heparin tube
D.Gold-top serum separator tube (SST)
Explanation: EDTA (lavender top) is the preferred anticoagulant for genomic DNA isolation from buffy coat because it strongly chelates divalent cations (Ca2+, Mg2+) required by DNases and most plasma nucleases, preserving high-molecular-weight DNA. EDTA is the ISBER and CAP-recommended anticoagulant for nucleic acid biobanking.
2What is the maximum acceptable warm ischemia time generally recommended by ISBER Best Practices for solid tumor tissue intended for high-quality RNA analysis?
A.Less than 30 minutes
B.Less than 2 hours
C.Less than 6 hours
D.Less than 24 hours
Explanation: Warm ischemia time (the interval between disruption of blood supply and tissue removal/cooling) should be minimized and ideally kept under 30 minutes. RNA degrades rapidly at body temperature, so prolonged warm ischemia compromises transcriptomic and proteomic integrity. ISBER Best Practices stress documenting warm and cold ischemia times for every tissue accession.
3A technician needs to isolate peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs) from a fresh whole blood sample. Which method is the standard of practice?
A.Ficoll-Paque density gradient centrifugation
B.Red cell lysis with ammonium chloride only
C.Centrifugation in an SST tube at 1500 x g
D.Filtration through a 0.22 micron membrane
Explanation: Ficoll-Paque density gradient centrifugation separates PBMCs (lymphocytes, monocytes) at the plasma-Ficoll interface based on density (~1.077 g/mL), while denser granulocytes and erythrocytes pellet through. This is the ISBER and clinical standard for PBMC isolation prior to cryopreservation.
4Which statement BEST distinguishes serum from plasma?
A.Serum lacks fibrinogen and clotting factors; plasma contains them
B.Plasma lacks albumin; serum contains it
C.Serum is collected with EDTA; plasma is collected without anticoagulant
D.Plasma contains hemoglobin; serum does not
Explanation: Serum is the fluid obtained after whole blood is allowed to clot, so fibrinogen and other clotting factors are consumed and absent. Plasma is obtained from anticoagulated whole blood and retains fibrinogen and clotting factors. This biochemical difference affects assay selection.
5A surgical tissue specimen is excised at 09:00 and arrives at the biorepository at 10:30 on wet ice. It is snap-frozen in liquid nitrogen at 10:35. What is the cold ischemia time?
A.1 hour 30 minutes
B.1 hour 35 minutes
C.5 minutes
D.Cannot be determined without warm ischemia time
Explanation: Cold ischemia time is the interval between placing the specimen on ice (or in cold preservation) and the time it is fixed or frozen for storage. From 09:00 (excision/cooling) to 10:30 (arrival on ice), the specimen was on ice for 90 minutes; the additional 5 minutes before freezing is also part of cold ischemia, but in this scenario the standard interpretation places cold ischemia at the on-ice transit window of 90 minutes.
6Which tube color and additive is correctly paired?
A.Light blue: 3.2% sodium citrate
B.Green: K2 EDTA
C.Lavender: lithium heparin
D.Gray: clot activator
Explanation: Light blue tubes contain 3.2% buffered sodium citrate at a 1:9 anticoagulant-to-blood ratio and are the standard for coagulation testing (PT/INR, aPTT).
7For optimal preservation of high-quality intact RNA from a fresh tissue biopsy, what time-to-freeze target does ISBER recommend?
A.Within 30 minutes of devascularization
B.Within 4 hours of devascularization
C.Within 12 hours of devascularization
D.Within 24 hours of devascularization
Explanation: Snap-freezing within 30 minutes of devascularization (or stabilization in an RNA-preserving solution like RNAlater within 30 minutes) is the ISBER best practice for maintaining RIN values suitable for transcriptomics.
8A biospecimen kit for outpatient blood collection includes EDTA, SST, and PST tubes. The PST tube contains:
A.Lithium heparin and a gel separator
B.K2 EDTA and a gel separator
C.Sodium citrate and a gel separator
D.A clot activator and a gel separator
Explanation: Plasma Separator Tubes (PST) contain lithium heparin anticoagulant plus a thixotropic gel barrier. After centrifugation, plasma is separated from cells by the gel and is suitable for many chemistry analytes.
9Which order of draw minimizes additive cross-contamination during a multi-tube blood collection?
A.Blood culture, citrate (light blue), serum (red/SST), heparin (green), EDTA (lavender), fluoride (gray)
B.EDTA, heparin, citrate, serum, blood culture
C.Serum, blood culture, EDTA, citrate, fluoride, heparin
D.Fluoride, EDTA, heparin, serum, citrate, blood culture
Explanation: CLSI GP41 order of draw: blood culture first (sterility), then citrate (coag), then serum/SST, then heparin, then EDTA, then fluoride/oxalate. This sequence prevents EDTA carryover into chemistry tubes and other additive contamination.
10Saliva is collected for genomic DNA banking using an Oragene-style kit. Which factor is MOST important in pre-analytical handling?
A.Mixing the sample with the stabilizing buffer immediately after collection
B.Centrifuging the sample at 3000 x g within 1 hour
C.Adding EDTA to a final concentration of 5 mM
D.Storing on dry ice within 30 minutes
Explanation: Saliva DNA collection kits rely on a chemical stabilizing buffer (containing chelators and chaotropes) that inactivates nucleases and bacterial growth. The cap must be closed/mixed immediately so the buffer contacts the saliva. Stabilized samples are stable at room temperature for years.

About the QBRS Exam

ASCP BOC Qualification credential for biorepository / biobank professionals. Co-offered with ISBER (International Society for Biological and Environmental Repositories). Validates working knowledge of specimen collection and pre-analytical variables, storage temperatures and cryopreservation (DMSO 5-10%, 1°C/min controlled freezing), inventory management with LIMS and barcoding, regulatory and ethical requirements (IRB, HIPAA + Common Rule, ISBER Best Practices 5th edition, FDA 21 CFR 1271 HCT/P, ISO 20387), QA/QM, disaster recovery, and de-identification.

Questions

50 scored questions

Time Limit

90 minutes

Passing Score

Scaled

Exam Fee

$260 (ASCP BOC)

QBRS Exam Content Outline

20%

Specimen Collection & Pre-Analytical

Tube types, serum/plasma, warm/cold ischemia, time-to-freeze, PBMC isolation Ficoll

25%

Storage & Cryopreservation

Temps (4°C, -20°C, -80°C, -150°C, vapor/liquid LN2), DMSO 5-10%, 1°C/min, vitrification

15%

Inventory Management & Tracking (LIMS)

LIMS, barcoding (1D/2D/RFID), chain of custody, freezer mapping, alarms

15%

Regulatory & Ethical

IRB, HIPAA + Common Rule (45 CFR 46), ISBER Best Practices, FDA 21 CFR 1271, GDPR

10%

Quality Management

ISO 20387 biobanking, SOPs, CAPAs, IQ/OQ/PQ, CAP BAP

10%

Disaster Recovery & Business Continuity

Backup power, freezer redundancy, sample relocation, LN2 risk in power loss

5%

Data Management & De-Identification

Coded vs anonymized, HIPAA Safe Harbor 18 identifiers, MTAs

How to Pass the QBRS Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Scaled
  • Exam length: 50 questions
  • Time limit: 90 minutes
  • Exam fee: $260

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

QBRS Study Tips from Top Performers

1Master cryopreservation: DMSO 5-10%, controlled-rate 1°C/min, ULT -80°C, vapor LN2 -150°C, liquid LN2 -196°C
2Know HIPAA Safe Harbor 18 identifiers — must remove ALL for de-identification
3Memorize ISBER Best Practices 5th edition: SOPs, training, equipment validation, environmental monitoring
4Understand Common Rule (45 CFR 46): IRB review, informed consent, vulnerable populations protections
5Apply ISO 20387 biobanking standard: competence, impartiality, consistent operation, documented quality

Frequently Asked Questions

What is ISO 20387?

ISO 20387 (Biotechnology — Biobanking — General requirements for biobanking) is the international standard for biobanks, published 2018. Defines requirements for biobank competence, impartiality, consistent operation, and ability to provide biological material with documented quality. Increasingly used as the basis for biobank accreditation worldwide. CAP BAP (Biorepository Accreditation Program) is a US-specific accreditation that aligns with ISO 20387.

What cryopreservation parameters should I master?

Cryoprotectants: DMSO 5-10% for cells (intracellular protection); glycerol 10-20% for sperm; methylcellulose for slow-freeze. Controlled-rate freezing: 1°C/min for most cell types (CRF freezer, e.g., Planer Kryo). Vitrification: ultra-rapid cooling (>10,000°C/min) used for embryos/oocytes. Storage temps: -80°C (ULT, dry-ice equivalent for short-term), -150°C (mechanical), vapor-phase LN2 (-150°C, safer in power loss), liquid-phase LN2 (-196°C, deepest freeze).

What are HIPAA Safe Harbor 18 identifiers?

HIPAA Privacy Rule Safe Harbor de-identification removes 18 categories: names, geographic subdivisions smaller than state, all dates except year (and ages over 89 collapsed), telephone numbers, fax numbers, email addresses, SSN, medical record numbers, health plan beneficiary numbers, account numbers, certificate/license numbers, vehicle identifiers, device identifiers, URLs, IP addresses, biometric identifiers, full-face photographs, and any other unique identifying number/characteristic. Removed data is considered de-identified. Alternative: Expert Determination method.

How should I study for ASCP QBRS?

Plan 30-50 hours over 4-6 weeks. Focus on Storage/Cryopreservation (25%), Specimen Collection (20%), and Regulatory/Ethical (15%). Master ISBER Best Practices 5th edition, ISO 20387, HIPAA Safe Harbor, IRB and Common Rule basics, and cryopreservation parameters.