100+ Free Residencias Médicas Santa Fe y Rosario Practice Questions

Prepare for the Santa Fe & Rosario Unified Health Residencies Contest (Concurso Unificado de Residencias — Santa Fe y Rosario Medicina) exam with instant access — no signup required.

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: Residencias Médicas Santa Fe y Rosario Exam

100

Exam Questions

Reglamento General Medicina — Concurso Unificado 2026

Exam Duration (09:00-12:00)

concursosantafe.ar — Recomendaciones para el examen

50%

Eliminatory Minimum

Reglamento General Medicina — Concurso Unificado 2026

0,50 pts

Value Per Correct Answer

Reglamento General Medicina — Concurso Unificado 2026

50 pts

Maximum Written Exam Score

Reglamento General Medicina — Concurso Unificado 2026

Official Content Areas in the Guía de Temas

Guía de Temas y Bibliografía para Examen Escrito (02/04/2026)

Jun 17

2026 Exam Date

Cronograma Oficial — concursosantafe.ar

Not published

Registration Fee

Mesa Interinstitucional (no arancel published)

The Concurso Unificado de Residencias (Santa Fe & Rosario) is a 3-hour, 100-question multiple-choice exam administered across test sites in Santa Fe and Rosario. Correct answers are worth 0.50 points each (maximum 50 exam points) and candidates must reach an eliminatory minimum of 50% of the total questions before being ranked on the Orden de Mérito, which combines the historical university GPA including aplazos, the assessed antecedentes, and the exam mark. The official Guía de Temas y Bibliografía divides the paper into four content areas — Salud Pública, Salud Sexual y Reproductiva, Salud Integral de Niños, Niñas y Adolescentes, and Salud de las Personas Adultas — without publishing percentage weightings. This prep bank provides an English-language clinical adaptation with accurate Argentine health laws and protocols.

Sample Residencias Médicas Santa Fe y Rosario Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your Residencias Médicas Santa Fe y Rosario exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 58-year-old male presents to the emergency department with 90 minutes of crushing retrosternal chest pain radiating to the left arm and jaw, diaphoresis, and nausea. His 12-lead ECG reveals 3 mm ST-segment elevation in leads V1-V4 with reciprocal ST depressions in leads II, III, and aVF. The facility has an on-site catheterization laboratory. According to acute coronary syndrome guidelines, what is the primary reperfusion goal?

A.Immediate administration of IV alteplase followed by coronary angiography in 24 hours

B.Primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) with a door-to-balloon time of less than 90 minutes

C.Urgent coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery within 6 hours

D.Observation in the coronary care unit with dual antiplatelet therapy and heparin for 12 hours before imaging

Explanation: For patients presenting with ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) within 12 hours of symptom onset at a PCI-capable center, primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is the gold standard reperfusion strategy. The recommended target door-to-balloon time is under 90 minutes (or under 60 minutes from PCI center arrival). Rapid mechanical recanalization restores coronary flow, minimizes myocardial necrosis, and significantly reduces mortality.

2A 64-year-old female with ischemic cardiomyopathy has chronic dyspnea on mild exertion (NYHA Class III). Transthoracic echocardiography shows a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of 28%. Her blood pressure is 125/75 mmHg, pulse is 72 bpm, serum creatinine is 1.0 mg/dL, and serum potassium is 4.3 mEq/L. She is currently taking enalapril 10 mg twice daily and bisoprolol 5 mg daily. Which modification constitutes optimal guideline-directed medical therapy (GDMT) to reduce cardiovascular mortality?

A.Discontinue bisoprolol and start ivabradine monotherapy

B.Switch enalapril to sacubitril/valsartan, add spironolactone, and add an SGLT2 inhibitor (dapagliflozin or empagliflozin)

C.Add digoxin and increase enalapril to maximum dose while maintaining current regimen

D.Add diltiazem for blood pressure and rate optimization

Explanation: Current international and Argentine guidelines for heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF, LVEF <= 40%) recommend foundational 'quadruple therapy' to reduce mortality and hospitalizations: an ARNI (sacubitril/valsartan replacing an ACEi with a 36-hour washout period), an evidence-based beta-blocker (bisoprolol, carvedilol, or metoprolol succinate), a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist (spironolactone or eplerenone), and an SGLT2 inhibitor (dapagliflozin or empagliflozin).

3A 72-year-old male with a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and a previous ischemic stroke 2 years ago is diagnosed with paroxysmal non-valvular atrial fibrillation. What is his CHA2DS2-VASc score and the recommended stroke prevention strategy?

A.Score 2; Aspirin 100 mg daily monotherapy

B.Score 3; Clopidogrel 75 mg plus Aspirin 100 mg daily

C.Score 5; Oral anticoagulation with a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) or dose-adjusted vitamin K antagonist

D.Score 1; No antithrombotic therapy required

Explanation: The CHA2DS2-VASc score allocates: Congestive heart failure (0), Hypertension (1), Age >= 75 (0), Diabetes (1), Prior Stroke/TIA (2), Vascular disease (0), Age 65-74 (1), Sex category female (0), totaling 5 points. A score >= 2 in men mandates oral anticoagulation (DOACs like apixaban, rivaroxaban, dabigatran, or dose-adjusted warfarin/acenocoumarol with target INR 2.0-3.0) to significantly lower the risk of thromboembolic stroke.

4A 34-year-old female presents with refractory hypertension (blood pressure 168/104 mmHg despite adherence to amlodipine, losartan, and hydrochlorothiazide). Routine laboratory testing shows serum sodium 142 mEq/L, serum potassium 2.9 mEq/L (confirmed on repeat testing without diuretics), and normal renal function. Which initial diagnostic screening test is most appropriate to evaluate for secondary hypertension?

A.24-hour urinary free cortisol excretion

B.Plasma aldosterone concentration to plasma renin activity (or direct renin concentration) ratio (ARR)

C.Renal artery magnetic resonance angiography (MRA)

D.24-hour urinary fractionated metanephrines and catecholamines

Explanation: Spontaneous hypokalemia combined with resistant hypertension in a young adult strongly suggests primary aldosteronism (Conn syndrome or bilateral adrenal hyperplasia). The recommended initial screening test is the Aldosterone-to-Renin Ratio (ARR) measured under standardized conditions (correcting hypokalemia first). An elevated ARR with elevated plasma aldosterone warrants confirmatory suppression testing and subsequent adrenal CT imaging.

5A 68-year-old male presents with 4 days of productive cough with rust-colored sputum, fever (38.8°C), and right-sided pleuritic chest pain. Examination shows bronchial breathing and crackles in the right lower lung field. His respiratory rate is 24 breaths/min, blood pressure is 128/78 mmHg, and he is alert and oriented (Glasgow 15/15). Serum BUN is 14 mg/dL (urea 30 mg/dL). Chest X-ray reveals right lower lobe lobar consolidation. What is his CURB-65 score and the recommended management setting?

A.CURB-65 score 1; Outpatient treatment with oral amoxicillin (or amoxicillin/clavulanate +/- macrolide)

B.CURB-65 score 3; Immediate admission to the Intensive Care Unit for IV broad-spectrum antibiotics

C.CURB-65 score 0; Outpatient symptomatic treatment without antibiotics

D.CURB-65 score 4; Inpatient telemetry ward with IV levofloxacin monotherapy

Explanation: CURB-65 criteria allocate 1 point each for: Confusion (0), Urea > 7 mmol/L / BUN > 19 mg/dL (0), Respiratory rate >= 30 (0), Blood pressure SBP < 90 or DBP <= 60 (0), and Age >= 65 (1 point for age 68). A CURB-65 score of 1 indicates low mortality risk (<3%), qualifying the patient for outpatient oral antibiotic therapy (high-dose amoxicillin or amoxicillin-clavulanic acid, optionally combined with clarithromycin/azithromycin) according to Argentine and international guidelines.

6A 66-year-old male with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD, GOLD Stage 3) presents to the emergency department with acute worsening of dyspnea, increased sputum volume, and sputum purulence (Anthonisen Type 1 exacerbation). Physical examination reveals tachypnea (28 breaths/min), wheezing, and an oxygen saturation of 87% on room air. Arterial blood gas shows pH 7.32, PaCO2 52 mmHg, PaO2 56 mmHg, and HCO3- 27 mEq/L. Along with controlled oxygen therapy (target SpO2 88-92%), which therapeutic combination is indicated?

A.High-flow 100% oxygen by non-rebreather mask and IV furosemide

B.Inhaled short-acting bronchodilators (salbutamol + ipratropium), systemic corticosteroids (oral prednisone 40 mg/day for 5 days), and oral antibiotics (amoxicillin-clavulanate)

C.Immediate endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation without a trial of non-invasive ventilation

D.Inhaled fluticasone monotherapy and prophylactic low-dose oral theophylline

Explanation: In an acute COPD exacerbation meeting Anthonisen criteria (increased dyspnea, sputum volume, and purulence) with respiratory acidosis, evidence-based management includes controlled oxygen titration (target SpO2 88-92%), inhaled short-acting beta-2 agonists plus anticholinergics (salbutamol + ipratropium), a 5-day course of systemic corticosteroids (prednisone 40 mg daily), and targeted antibiotics (such as amoxicillin-clavulanate or azithromycin). Non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIV/BiPAP) is indicated if pH < 7.35 and PaCO2 > 45 mmHg persist.

7A 45-year-old female who underwent an open left femoral fracture reduction and internal fixation 10 days ago presents with sudden-onset pleuritic chest pain, dyspnea, and tachycardia (pulse 114 bpm). Her blood pressure is 120/78 mmHg, respiratory rate is 26 breaths/min, and SpO2 is 92% on ambient air. Physical exam reveals left calf swelling and tenderness. What is the most appropriate next diagnostic step?

A.Reassure the patient and obtain a 24-hour Holter monitor

B.Order high-sensitivity D-dimer as the sole definitive test to rule in pulmonary embolism

C.Calculate clinical probability (Wells score indicates high/likely probability) and perform computed tomography pulmonary angiography (CTPA)

D.Perform emergency catheter-directed pulmonary embolectomy immediately without imaging

Explanation: The patient has multiple high-risk factors: recent major surgery/immobilization (1.5 points), clinical signs of DVT (3 points), tachycardia > 100 bpm (1.5 points), making pulmonary embolism likely (Wells score >= 4 or > 6 points). In high/likely clinical probability, the diagnostic gold standard is CT pulmonary angiography (CTPA). D-dimer should not be used to rule out PE in high-probability patients because a negative result does not reliably exclude the diagnosis.

8A 32-year-old male presents to a primary healthcare center (centro de salud) with a 4-week history of productive cough, intermittent low-grade afternoon fever, night sweats, and a 5 kg weight loss. A chest radiograph demonstrates apical fibro-cavitary infiltrates in the right upper lobe. According to the Argentine National Tuberculosis Control Program guidelines, what is the initial diagnostic strategy and standard first-line treatment regimen?

A.Immediate bronchoscopy with transbronchial biopsy followed by ciprofloxacin monotherapy

B.Serial sputum smear microscopy (baciloscopía) and rapid molecular testing (GeneXpert MTB/RIF), followed by 2 months of HRZE (Isoniazid, Rifampicin, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol) and 4 months of HR (Isoniazid, Rifampicin)

C.Purified protein derivative (PPD) tuberculin skin test alone; if positive (>10 mm), initiate 6 months of ethambutol monotherapy

D.Serum antibody serology against Mycobacterium tuberculosis and oral clarithromycin for 14 days

Explanation: In any respiratory symptomatic patient (cough > 15 days), the Argentine Ministry of Health guidelines mandate sputum smear microscopy (two samples for Ziehl-Neelsen staining) and molecular testing (GeneXpert MTB/RIF) for rapid diagnosis and rifampicin resistance detection. Standard first-line treatment for drug-susceptible pulmonary tuberculosis consists of a 2-month intensive phase with 4 drugs (Isoniazid [H], Rifampicin [R], Pyrazinamide [Z], and Ethambutol [E]), followed by a 4-month continuation phase with 2 drugs (Isoniazid and Rifampicin) administered in fixed-dose combinations.

9A 54-year-old male with known alcohol-related cirrhosis and ascites presents with diffuse abdominal pain, low-grade fever (37.9°C), and mild confusion. Physical examination reveals abdominal distension with shifting dullness and diffuse tenderness without peritoneal rebound. Diagnostic paracentesis is performed. Ascitic fluid analysis reveals an absolute neutrophil (PMN) count of 380 cells/mm3 and total protein of 1.1 g/dL. What is the diagnosis and appropriate management?

A.Secondary bacterial peritonitis from bowel perforation; schedule immediate emergency exploratory laparotomy

B.Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP); initiate IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) and IV albumin infusion (1.5 g/kg on day 1, 1.0 g/kg on day 3)

C.Uncomplicated cirrhotic ascites; increase oral spironolactone dose and discharge home

D.Tuberculous peritonitis; start quadruple anti-tuberculosis therapy immediately

Explanation: An ascitic fluid polymorphonuclear (PMN) count >= 250 cells/mm3 confirms Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis (SBP), even before bacterial cultures return. First-line empiric antibiotic therapy is an IV third-generation cephalosporin (cefotaxime 2g q8h or ceftriaxone 2g q24h). Intravenous albumin (1.5 g/kg at diagnosis and 1.0 g/kg on day 3) is critical to prevent hepatorenal syndrome and significantly reduces mortality.

10A 50-year-old male with hepatitis C cirrhosis presents to the resuscitation bay with large-volume hematemesis and melena. His blood pressure is 85/50 mmHg, pulse is 122 bpm, and he is pale and cold. Resuscitation with crystalloids and restrictive packed red blood cell transfusion (target hemoglobin 7-8 g/dL) is initiated. Which pharmacological and endoscopic interventions should be instituted immediately?

A.IV vasopressin monotherapy and elective colonoscopy within 72 hours

B.IV vasoactive agent (octreotide or terlipressin), prophylactic IV antibiotic (ceftriaxone 1g/day), and urgent upper endoscopy with endoscopic variceal band ligation (EVBL) within 12 hours

C.High-dose oral propranolol and immediate transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) before endoscopy

D.IV proton pump inhibitor infusion alone without antibiotics or endoscopic intervention

Explanation: Management of acute variceal hemorrhage requires early initiation of vasoactive drugs (terlipressin, somatostatin, or octreotide) to reduce portal pressure, short-term antibiotic prophylaxis (ceftriaxone 1g/24h for 7 days) to prevent bacterial infections and reduce rebleeding/mortality, and early upper endoscopy within 12 hours with endoscopic variceal band ligation (EVBL).

About the Residencias Médicas Santa Fe y Rosario Exam

The Concurso Unificado de Residencias de la Provincia de Santa Fe y la Municipalidad de Rosario is the official unified competitive entrance examination for medical post-graduate residency positions across public provincial hospitals, municipal healthcare facilities in Rosario, and accredited private institutions in the province of Santa Fe. Governed by the Mesa Interinstitucional, the written examination evaluates 100 single-best-answer multiple-choice questions over 3 hours across four core content areas: Salud de las Personas Adultas, Salud Integral de Niños, Niñas y Adolescentes, Salud Sexual y Reproductiva, and Salud Pública y Normativa Sanitaria (including key Argentine national healthcare legislation). Language note: the Concurso Unificado is set and sat entirely in Spanish. This question bank is an English-language MCQ study adaptation built from the official Guía de Temas y Bibliografía para Examen Escrito and scoped to the Medicina paper — it is not an official translation, is not published or endorsed by the Mesa Interinstitucional, and does not simulate the exam's Spanish-language testing environment. Official Argentine statutes, clinical guidelines, and local terminology are kept in Spanish so you can match them to the published Guía.

Assessment

One 3-hour in-person written paper of 100 single-best-answer questions (09:00-12:00), completed on an optical grilla in black pen at the Santa Fe and Rosario sedes. Several equivalent versions (TEMA A/B/C) are distributed. This bank is scoped to the MEDICINA paper only; the Concurso Unificado sets separate papers for the other participating professions and a distinct posbásicas sitting.

Time Limit

3 hours (180 minutes)

Passing Score

Eliminatory minimum of 50% of the total questions. Correct answers are worth 0.50 points each (maximum 50 exam points); the orden de mérito for básicas is then built from the historical university GPA including aplazos, the antecedentes score, and the exam mark.

Exam Fee

Not published by the Mesa Interinstitucional (Mesa Interinstitucional (Ministerio de Salud de Santa Fe, Secretaría de Salud Pública de Rosario, Colegios de Médicos de Santa Fe 1ra y 2da Circunscripción))

Residencias Médicas Santa Fe y Rosario Exam Content Outline

40 Qs

Salud de las Personas Adultas

Adult clinical medicine and surgery: internal medicine (cardiology, pulmonology, gastroenterology, nephrology, endocrinology, infectious diseases, neurology) and general surgical pathology (acute abdomen, trauma, biliary tract, hernia, oncology, perioperative management).

25 Qs

Salud Integral de Niños, Niñas y Adolescentes

Pediatric and adolescent healthcare: neonatal adaptation and screening, growth and development milestones, pediatric nutrition, acute respiratory infections (bronchiolitis, pneumonia), acute diarrhea and dehydration, exanthemata, pediatric emergencies, and the Argentine National Immunization Schedule (Calendario Nacional de Vacunación).

20 Qs

Salud Sexual y Reproductiva

Comprehensive sexual and reproductive health: prenatal care, hypertensive disorders of pregnancy, obstetric hemorrhages, labor and delivery management, contraception (LARC, hormonal, barrier, emergency), cervical and breast cancer screening, sexually transmitted infections, and legal frameworks for voluntary and legal termination of pregnancy (Ley 27.610 IVE/ILE).

15 Qs

Salud Pública y Normativa Sanitaria

Primary healthcare (APS), epidemiological surveillance, health indicators, and core Argentine health legislation: Medical Practice Act (Ley 17.132), Patient Rights and Informed Consent (Ley 26.529), Comprehensive Protection of Children and Adolescents (Ley 26.061), National Sexual Health and Responsible Procreation Program (Ley 25.673), National Mental Health Law (Ley 26.657), National Suicide Prevention Law (Ley 27.130), Organ and Tissue Transplantation / 'Ley Justina' (Ley 27.447), and Comprehensive Palliative Care Law (Ley 27.678).

How to Pass the Residencias Médicas Santa Fe y Rosario Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: Eliminatory minimum of 50% of the total questions. Correct answers are worth 0.50 points each (maximum 50 exam points); the orden de mérito for básicas is then built from the historical university GPA including aplazos, the antecedentes score, and the exam mark.
Assessment: One 3-hour in-person written paper of 100 single-best-answer questions (09:00-12:00), completed on an optical grilla in black pen at the Santa Fe and Rosario sedes. Several equivalent versions (TEMA A/B/C) are distributed. This bank is scoped to the MEDICINA paper only; the Concurso Unificado sets separate papers for the other participating professions and a distinct posbásicas sitting.
Time limit: 3 hours (180 minutes)
Exam fee: Not published by the Mesa Interinstitucional

Keys to Passing

Work through all 100 available questions
Review every answer and explanation
Track weak areas and revisit them
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

Residencias Médicas Santa Fe y Rosario Study Tips from Top Performers

1Master Argentine National Health Laws: Carefully review statutory articles and clinical obligations under Ley 26.529 (patient autonomy and digital medical records), Ley 27.447 (presumed organ donor status), Ley 26.657 (mental health multidisciplinary care), and Ley 26.061 (NNyA progressive autonomy).

2Focus on Adult Internal Medicine and Surgery, the largest area in this bank: Review acute coronary syndromes, sepsis resuscitation (Surviving Sepsis guidelines), acute abdomen triage, biliary disease, diabetes ketoacidosis, and stroke management.

3Review Pediatric & Neonatal Guidelines: Learn neonatal APGAR/Silverman-Andersen scores, pediatric dehydration scales, bronchiolitis management (supportive care without routine bronchodilators/steroids), and the complete Calendario Nacional de Vacunación.

4Thoroughly Study Women's and Reproductive Health: Focus on Argentine protocols for preeclampsia/eclampsia (magnesium sulfate regimens), postpartum hemorrhage (active management of third stage), FIGO staging, contraception selection criteria, and Ley 27.610 protocols.

5Practice Timed 100-Question Simulations: Allocate approximately 1.8 minutes per question to ensure you complete the 100-question paper within the 3-hour limit.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the Concurso Unificado de Residencias de Santa Fe y Rosario?

It is the unified annual competitive examination system established by the Mesa Interinstitucional—comprising the Ministerio de Salud de la Provincia de Santa Fe, the Secretaría de Salud Pública de Rosario, and the Colegios de Médicos (1ra Circunscripción Santa Fe and 2da Circunscripción Rosario)—to allocate medical residency positions across provincial, municipal, and participating private institutions.

How many questions are on the Santa Fe residency exam, and how long does it take?

The exam consists of 100 multiple-choice questions with 4 options and a single best answer, administered on an optical answer sheet (grilla). Candidates have 3 hours (180 minutes) to complete the test.

What is the minimum passing score for the written exam?

Candidates must obtain a minimum passing score of 50% (50 correct answers out of 100) to avoid disqualification. Passing candidates are subsequently ranked on the definitive Orden de Mérito based on their exam score combined with their university GPA (promedio con aplazos).

What content areas are covered in the official syllabus?

The official Guía de Temas y Bibliografía para Examen Escrito (published 02/04/2026 on concursosantafe.ar) organises the Medicina paper into exactly four content areas: Salud Pública, Salud Sexual y Reproductiva, Salud Integral de Niños, Niñas y Adolescentes, and Salud de las Personas Adultas. The Guía lists topics and bibliography for each area but does not assign percentage weightings, so the question counts shown for this bank are its own distribution across those four official areas.

Which Argentine health laws are essential to study for this exam?

The Santa Fe temario emphasizes Argentine national legislation: Ley 17.132 (Medical Practice), Ley 26.529 (Patient Rights & Informed Consent), Ley 26.061 (Protection of Children/Adolescents), Ley 25.673 (Sexual Health & Responsible Procreation), Ley 26.657 (National Mental Health), Ley 27.130 (Suicide Prevention), Ley 27.447 (Organ Donation / Ley Justina), and Ley 27.678 (Palliative Care).

Is this practice question bank in English or Spanish?

This question bank is an English-language study adaptation designed to master the Santa Fe residency curriculum, while retaining precise Argentine statutory names, acronyms, and national health program terminology in Spanish for clinical and legal accuracy.