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100+ Free Residencias CABA Medicina Practice Questions

Prepare for the Buenos Aires City Health Residencies Contest (Concurso de Residencias del Equipo de Salud del GCABA — Medicina) exam with instant access — no signup required.

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: Residencias CABA Medicina Exam

100

Exam Questions

Res. 1567/GCABA-MSGC/26, Anexo I, Art. 9 i

2.5h

Exam Duration (150 min)

Res. 1567/MSGC/26 Anexo I Art. 9 vi; Res. 273/SSPSGER/2026 Anexo I

1 pt

Value Per Correct Answer

Res. 1567/GCABA-MSGC/26, Anexo I, Art. 9 i

x 0,5

Exam Weighting in Orden de Mérito

Res. 1567/GCABA-MSGC/26, Anexo I, Art. 11

+5 pts

Bonus for a Full Argentine Undergraduate Degree

Res. 1567/GCABA-MSGC/26, Anexo I, Art. 11

Jun 10

2026 Exam Date

Res. 273/GCABA-SSPSGER/2026, Anexo I

Not published

Registration Fee

Res. 1567/GCABA-MSGC/26 (no arancel stated)

The GCABA Medicina residency entrance exam is a 100-question, 2.5-hour (150 minute) written multiple-choice examination held at UBA facilities; in 2026 the Medicina paper ran 09:00–11:30 on 10 June. Resolución 1567/GCABA-MSGC/26 (Anexo I, Art. 11) sets the merit formula as (E x 0,5) + P + plus: half the 100-point written score, plus the university GPA including aplazos, plus 5 points for professionals who completed their entire undergraduate degree in Argentina. GCABA publishes a per-discipline bibliography rather than percentage weightings; this bank covers internal medicine, pediatrics, general surgery and trauma, obstetrics and gynecology, and public health, bioethics and CABA health legislation. This study bank provides an English-language clinical adaptation with Argentine statutory and clinical fidelity.

Sample Residencias CABA Medicina Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your Residencias CABA Medicina exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 58-year-old male presents to the emergency department of a CABA general acute hospital with 90 minutes of crushing retrosternal chest pain radiating to his left arm and diaphoresis. An immediate electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals 3 mm ST-segment elevation in leads V1 through V4. The hospital has a functioning cardiac catheterization laboratory with an on-site interventional team available within 30 minutes. What is the most appropriate initial reperfusion strategy?
A.Immediate primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)
B.Immediate intravenous fibrinolytic therapy with tenecteplase
C.Urgent coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery within 24 hours
D.Conservative medical therapy with unfractionated heparin and clopidogrel alone
Explanation: Primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is the gold standard reperfusion therapy for acute ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) when it can be performed within 90-120 minutes of first medical contact by an experienced team. In this case, with an on-site catheterization laboratory ready within 30 minutes, immediate primary PCI is strongly indicated to achieve prompt vessel recanalization and reduce mortality.
2A 64-year-old female with chronic heart failure and a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of 28% remains symptomatic (NYHA Functional Class II) despite optimized treatment with sacubitril/valsartan and carvedilol. Her blood pressure is 122/76 mmHg, heart rate is 68 bpm, serum potassium is 4.3 mEq/L, and estimated GFR is 58 mL/min/1.73 m2. According to international and Argentine cardiology guidelines (SAC), which combination of medications should be added to complete foundational guideline-directed medical therapy (GDMT)?
A.Digoxin and furosemide
B.Spironolactone and dapagliflozin
C.Amlodipine and isosorbide dinitrate
D.Ivabradine and hydralazine
Explanation: Modern guideline-directed medical therapy (GDMT) for heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) is built upon four foundational pillars that reduce all-cause and cardiovascular mortality: an ARNI (sacubitril/valsartan), an evidence-based beta-blocker, a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist (MRA such as spironolactone or eplerenone), and an SGLT2 inhibitor (dapagliflozin or empagliflozin). Because she is already receiving an ARNI and beta-blocker with normal potassium and renal function, spironolactone and dapagliflozin should be initiated.
3A 71-year-old male with a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and a previous ischemic stroke 2 years ago is diagnosed with non-valvular atrial fibrillation during a routine clinic visit. He is currently asymptomatic with a heart rate of 78 bpm. What is his CHA2DS2-VASc score and what is the recommended long-term management strategy to prevent systemic thromboembolism?
A.CHA2DS2-VASc score 2; initiate low-dose aspirin (100 mg daily)
B.CHA2DS2-VASc score 3; initiate dual antiplatelet therapy with aspirin plus clopidogrel
C.CHA2DS2-VASc score 5; initiate oral anticoagulation with a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) or warfarin
D.CHA2DS2-VASc score 4; perform urgent electrical cardioversion without anticoagulation
Explanation: The CHA2DS2-VASc score calculation is: Hypertension (1 point), Age 65-74 (1 point), Diabetes mellitus (1 point), and Prior Stroke/TIA (2 points), yielding a total score of 5 points. For male patients with a CHA2DS2-VASc score >= 2 (or females >= 3), chronic oral anticoagulation with a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC, such as apixaban, rivaroxaban, or dabigatran) or a vitamin K antagonist is strongly recommended to reduce the risk of thromboembolic stroke.
4A 38-year-old female is evaluated for persistent grade 2 hypertension (blood pressure 168/102 mmHg) despite adherence to a three-drug regimen including enalapril, amlodipine, and hydrochlorothiazide. Routine laboratory testing reveals a serum potassium of 2.9 mEq/L (normal: 3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and a serum bicarbonate of 31 mEq/L. Which diagnostic screening test is the most appropriate next step to evaluate for the suspected secondary cause of her hypertension?
A.24-hour urinary free cortisol excretion
B.Renal artery Doppler ultrasound
C.Plasma free metanephrines and normetanephrines
D.Morning plasma aldosterone concentration to plasma renin activity (PAC/PRA) ratio
Explanation: The combination of resistant hypertension, spontaneous hypokalemia, and metabolic alkalosis in a relatively young patient strongly points to primary aldosteronism (Conn's syndrome). The recommended initial screening test is the morning paired plasma aldosterone concentration (PAC) and plasma renin activity (PRA) or direct renin concentration, where an elevated PAC/PRA ratio (> 20-30 with PAC > 15 ng/dL) warrants confirmatory suppression testing.
5A 52-year-old male with a native bicuspid aortic valve presents with a 3-week history of low-grade fever, night sweats, fatigue, and weight loss. Physical examination reveals a new grade 3/6 regurgitant aortic murmur and subungual splinter hemorrhages. Blood cultures draw 3 separate sets positive for Streptococcus viridans sensitive to penicillin. Transthoracic echocardiogram confirms an 8 mm oscillating vegetation on the aortic valve. According to the modified Duke criteria, what is the diagnostic classification and the first-line targeted antimicrobial therapy?
A.Definite infective endocarditis; intravenous penicillin G (or ampicillin) plus gentamicina or ceftriaxone monotherapy
B.Possible infective endocarditis; oral amoxicillin-clavulanate for 14 days
C.Definite infective endocarditis; intravenous vancomycin plus rifampicin and ciprofloxacin
D.Rejected infective endocarditis; oral clindamycin for 10 days
Explanation: This patient meets the modified Duke criteria for 'Definite Infective Endocarditis' by fulfilling two major criteria: persistently positive blood cultures with a typical microorganism (Streptococcus viridans) and clear echocardiographic evidence of endocardial involvement (oscillating aortic valve vegetation with new regurgitant murmur). First-line antimicrobial therapy for native valve penicillin-susceptible viridans group streptococci is intravenous crystalline penicillin G (or ampicillin) for 4 weeks, ceftriaxone monotherapy for 4 weeks, or 2 weeks of penicillin/ceftriaxone combined with gentamicin.
6A 68-year-old male presents with 4 days of productive cough with rust-colored sputum, right pleuritic chest pain, and fever. Vital signs show: BP 84/50 mmHg, pulse 108 bpm, respiratory rate 32 breaths/min, temperature 38.8 °C, and oxygen saturation 91% on room air. He is oriented in time and place. Laboratory tests reveal blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 28 mg/dL (urea 60 mg/dL). Chest radiograph shows right lower lobe consolidation. What is his CURB-65 score, and what is the most appropriate management setting?
A.CURB-65 score 1; outpatient oral amoxicillin
B.CURB-65 score 4; hospital admission with consideration for intermediate or intensive care
C.CURB-65 score 0; outpatient symptomatic care
D.CURB-65 score 5; immediate endotracheal intubation only
Explanation: The CURB-65 score awards 1 point each for: Confusion, Urea > 7 mmol/L (BUN > 19 mg/dL), Respiratory rate >= 30/min, Blood pressure systolic < 90 or diastolic <= 60 mmHg, and Age >= 65 years. This patient is alert and oriented (Confusion = 0) but meets the other four criteria: BUN 28 mg/dL, respiratory rate 32/min, blood pressure 84/50 mmHg, and age 68 — a score of 4. A score of 3 to 5 indicates severe community-acquired pneumonia requiring urgent hospital admission, intravenous antibiotics, and close hemodynamic monitoring in an intermediate care unit or ICU.
7A 24-year-old female with a history of moderate persistent asthma presents to the emergency room in severe respiratory distress. She can only speak in broken words, has marked intercostal retractions, a respiratory rate of 34 breaths/min, heart rate of 124 bpm, and oxygen saturation of 88% on room air. Diffuse expiratory wheezing is heard on auscultation. What is the most appropriate immediate medical management?
A.Inhaled fluticasone monotherapy, oral montelukast, and chest physiotherapy
B.Subcutaneous epinephrine, intravenous aminophylline, and immediate sedation
C.Supplemental oxygen to achieve SpO2 93-95%, frequent/continuous nebulized salbutamol plus ipratropium bromide, and early systemic corticosteroids
D.Non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (BiPAP) and intravenous salbutamol infusion without inhaled therapy
Explanation: In severe acute asthma exacerbations (crisis asmática grave), immediate management consists of: 1) controlled supplemental oxygen to maintain SpO2 between 93-95%, 2) high-dose inhaled short-acting beta-2 agonists (salbutamol) combined with an inhaled anticholinergic (ipratropium bromide) given repetitively or continuously, and 3) early administration of systemic corticosteroids (e.g., oral prednisone or IV hydrocortisone/methylprednisolone) to reduce airway inflammation and prevent relapse.
8A 67-year-old male with severe COPD (baseline FEV1 42% predicted) presents to the emergency department with worsening dyspnea over the past 48 hours, marked increase in sputum volume, and sputum purulence (Anthonisen Type 1 exacerbation). Arterial blood gas on room air shows: pH 7.29, PaCO2 56 mmHg, PaO2 52 mmHg, and HCO3 27 mEq/L. In addition to controlled oxygen, inhaled bronchodilators, and systemic corticosteroids, which interventions are indicated?
A.High-flow 100% oxygen via non-rebreather mask and prophylactic anticoagulation only
B.Immediate endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation without a trial of non-invasive ventilation
C.Intravenous aminophylline infusion and high-dose furosemide
D.Empiric antibiotic therapy (e.g., amoxicillin-clavulanate or azithromycin) and initiation of non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIV)
Explanation: Per GOLD and Argentine respiratory guidelines (AAMR), this patient presents with an acute COPD exacerbation meeting all three Anthonisen criteria (increased dyspnea, sputum volume, and purulence), which indicates empiric antibiotic therapy. Furthermore, acute respiratory acidosis with hypercapnia (pH 7.29, PaCO2 56 mmHg) without immediate life-threatening contraindications is the primary indication for non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIV/BiPAP), which reduces intubation rates, hospital stay, and in-hospital mortality.
9A 45-year-old female who underwent an open cholecystectomy 5 days ago suddenly develops acute shortness of breath, right-sided pleuritic chest pain, and presyncope. Physical examination reveals: blood pressure 78/45 mmHg, heart rate 130 bpm, respiratory rate 28 breaths/min, and distended neck veins. Bedside echocardiogram demonstrates acute right ventricular dilation, akinesia of the mid-free wall with preserved apex (McConnell sign), and a flattened interventricular septum. What is the most appropriate immediate definitive management?
A.Systemic intravenous thrombolytic therapy (e.g., recombinant tissue plasminogen activator - rtPA)
B.Low-molecular-weight heparin (enoxaparin) subcutaneously with watchful waiting
C.Emergent pericardiocentesis for suspected cardiac tamponade
D.Intravenous furosemide bolus and beta-blocker infusion
Explanation: This patient has a massive (high-risk) pulmonary thromboembolism (PTE) defined by hemodynamic collapse (persistent systolic blood pressure < 90 mmHg / cardiogenic shock) and severe acute right ventricular strain. In high-risk PTE with hemodynamic instability and low bleeding risk, immediate systemic thrombolysis (e.g., alteplase 100 mg IV over 2 hours) is the first-line treatment to rapidly dissolve the obstructing clot, restore pulmonary perfusion, and reverse acute right ventricular failure.
10A 56-year-old male with a history of alcohol use disorder is admitted with 7 days of fever, cough, and a large left-sided pleural effusion. A diagnostic thoracentesis is performed, yielding cloudy, purulent fluid. Pleural fluid analysis shows: pH 7.08, glucose 34 mg/dL, LDH 1450 IU/L (serum LDH 220 IU/L), and Gram stain demonstrates Gram-positive cocci in clusters. In addition to broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics, what is the mandatory immediate therapeutic step?
A.Repeat thoracentesis in 48 hours for biochemical monitoring
B.Complete tube thoracostomy (chest tube drainage)
C.Intrapleural instillation of hypertonic saline
D.Discharge with high-dose oral clindamycin
Explanation: This pleural fluid analysis meets the definitive criteria for an empyema / complicated parapneumonic effusion: purulent appearance, positive Gram stain, pH < 7.20, low glucose (< 40-60 mg/dL), and markedly elevated LDH. Parapneumonic effusions with these complicated features will not resolve with antibiotic therapy alone and mandate prompt complete drainage via tube thoracostomy (chest tube) to prevent loculation, fibrothorax, and sepsis.

About the Residencias CABA Medicina Exam

The Concurso de Residencias del Equipo de Salud del Gobierno de la Ciudad Autónoma de Buenos Aires (GCABA) is the municipal competitive residency selection contest for medical postgraduate training positions across the CABA public hospital network (including Hospital Fernández, Hospital Argerich, Hospital Durand, Hospital Santojanni, Hospital Ramos Mejía, Hospital Gutiérrez, Hospital Elizalde, Hospital Rivadavia, Hospital Muñiz, and Hospital Sardá). Governed by Resolución N° 1567/GCABA-MSGC/26 and Resolución N° 273/GCABA-SSPSGER/2026 (Pautas para el Examen), the medical examination is a 100-question multiple-choice test administered in person over 2.5 hours (150 minutes) at Universidad de Buenos Aires (UBA) faculties. Language note: the CABA concurso is set and sat entirely in Spanish. This practice question bank is an English-language MCQ study adaptation scoped to the CABA Medicina paper — it is not an official translation, is not published or endorsed by the Gobierno de la Ciudad de Buenos Aires, and does not simulate the exam's Spanish-language testing environment. Argentine legal statutes, official guidelines, program names, and local clinical terminology are kept in Spanish so you can match them to the official per-discipline bibliography. Some tracks in the wider concurso include an interview stage; this bank does not simulate it.

Assessment

One 2 hour 30 minute in-person written paper of 100 multiple-choice questions. In 2026 the Medicina básicas and posbásicas paper ran 09:00-11:30 at the UBA Facultad de Medicina and Facultad de Ciencias Económicas; the Equipo de Salud paper ran in the afternoon at the Facultad de Medicina. Equivalent randomised versions of the paper are generated to deter copying, and answers are read from an OMR grid. This bank is scoped to the MEDICINA paper only; the contest sets a separate paper for each health-team discipline. There is no simulated interview component in this bank.

Time Limit

2.5 hours (150 minutes)

Passing Score

No minimum mark. Anexo I Art. 11 computes the final score as (E x 0,5) + P + plus, where E is the 100-point written score, P is the university GPA including aplazos, and plus is 5 points for professionals who completed their whole undergraduate degree in Argentina. Ties break on the higher exam score, then on days since graduation.

Exam Fee

Not published — the 2026 concurso reglamento sets no arancel (Gobierno de la Ciudad Autónoma de Buenos Aires (GCABA) — Dirección General Docencia, Investigación y Desarrollo Profesional)

Residencias CABA Medicina Exam Content Outline

28 Qs

Internal Medicine (Clínica Médica)

Cardiology (acute coronary syndromes, heart failure, arrhythmias, hypertension), Pulmonology (asthma, COPD, community-acquired pneumonia, pulmonary embolism), Gastroenterology and Hepatology (cirrhosis, gastrointestinal bleeding, acute pancreatitis), Nephrology and Electrolytes (AKI, CKD, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, acid-base disorders), Endocrinology (diabetes mellitus emergencies, thyroid disease, adrenal crisis), Infectious Diseases (HIV/AIDS, tuberculosis, Chagas disease), and Neurology (stroke, seizures, meningitis).

22 Qs

Pediatrics & Child Health (Pediatría y Salud Infantil)

Neonatology (neonatal resuscitation, jaundice, sepsis), Growth and Neurodevelopment, Pediatric Nutrition, Immunizations (Calendario Nacional de Vacunación), Acute Respiratory Infections (bronchiolitis, croup, pneumonia), Dehydration and Oral Rehydration Therapy (Plan A/B/C), Pediatric Infectious Diseases (exanthemata, meningitis, sepsis, acute gastroenteritis), and SAP preventive care guidelines.

18 Qs

General Surgery & Trauma (Cirugía General y Trauma)

Acute Abdomen (acute appendicitis, cholecystitis, diverticulitis, perforation, bowel obstruction), Abdominal Wall Hernias (inguinal, femoral, incisional, umbilical), Biliary Tract Diseases, Gastrointestinal Surgical Oncology, Trauma Management (ATLS protocols, thoracic trauma, abdominal trauma, shock), and Surgical Site Infections.

18 Qs

Obstetrics & Gynecology (Tocoginecología)

Prenatal Care (Controles Prenatales per MSAL guidelines), High-Risk Pregnancy (Preeclampsia/Eclampsia, Gestational Diabetes, Threatened Preterm Labor), Labor and Delivery Management, Postpartum Hemorrhage, Cervical and Uterine Pathology (PAP/HPV screening, cervical dysplasia, leiomyomas), Contraception, and PID.

14 Qs

Public Health, Bioethics & CABA Healthcare Norms (Salud Pública)

Primary Health Care (APS) and Health Promotion, Ley Básica de Salud de la CABA (Ley 153), Patient Rights and Informed Consent (Ley 26.529), National Mental Health Law (Ley 26.657), Voluntary and Legal Interruption of Pregnancy (Ley 27.610 - IVE/ILE), and Employment Regime for Health Professionals in CABA (Ley 6.035).

How to Pass the Residencias CABA Medicina Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: No minimum mark. Anexo I Art. 11 computes the final score as (E x 0,5) + P + plus, where E is the 100-point written score, P is the university GPA including aplazos, and plus is 5 points for professionals who completed their whole undergraduate degree in Argentina. Ties break on the higher exam score, then on days since graduation.
  • Assessment: One 2 hour 30 minute in-person written paper of 100 multiple-choice questions. In 2026 the Medicina básicas and posbásicas paper ran 09:00-11:30 at the UBA Facultad de Medicina and Facultad de Ciencias Económicas; the Equipo de Salud paper ran in the afternoon at the Facultad de Medicina. Equivalent randomised versions of the paper are generated to deter copying, and answers are read from an OMR grid. This bank is scoped to the MEDICINA paper only; the contest sets a separate paper for each health-team discipline. There is no simulated interview component in this bank.
  • Time limit: 2.5 hours (150 minutes)
  • Exam fee: Not published — the 2026 concurso reglamento sets no arancel

Keys to Passing

  • Work through all 100 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

Residencias CABA Medicina Study Tips from Top Performers

1Work through the five clinical pillars this bank covers — internal medicine, pediatrics, surgery, tocoginecología, and CABA health legislation/public health. GCABA publishes a per-discipline bibliography rather than percentage weightings, so treat the question counts here as this bank's distribution, not an official blueprint.
2Thoroughly review key Argentine legislation: Ley 153 (CABA Health System), Ley 26.529 (Patient Rights), Ley 26.657 (Mental Health), Ley 27.610 (IVE/ILE), and Ley 6.035 (CABA Health Professional Career).
3Practice rapid 150-minute pacing for 100 clinical vignettes (90 seconds per question) to simulate the official 09:00–11:30 time window.
4Review official Argentine Ministry of Health (MSAL), Sociedad Argentina de Pediatría (SAP), and Sociedad Argentina de Cardiología (SAC) clinical management protocols.
5Pay close attention to acute clinical emergencies: sepsis resuscitation, acute coronary syndrome, diabetic ketoacidosis, status epilepticus, pediatric dehydration, preeclampsia, and acute abdomen.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the GCABA Concurso de Residencias del Equipo de Salud?

It is the official annual competitive examination conducted by the Gobierno de la Ciudad Autónoma de Buenos Aires (GCABA) through the Dirección General Docencia, Investigación y Desarrollo Profesional (Ministerio de Salud) to award medical residency posts in CABA municipal public hospitals.

How is the written examination structured and what is the duration?

Per Resolución N° 273/GCABA-SSPSGER/2026 (Pautas para el Examen), the medical examination consists of 100 multiple-choice questions with 4 options each (single best answer) and has a duration of 2.5 hours (150 minutes), traditionally administered from 09:00 to 11:30 at Universidad de Buenos Aires (UBA) venues.

How is the final merit score calculated for CABA residencias?

Anexo I, Article 11 of Resolución N° 1567/GCABA-MSGC/26 sets the formula as (E x 0,5) + P + plus, where E is the 100-point written exam score, P is the certified university GPA including aplazos on a 0–10 scale, and plus is 5 points awarded to health-team professionals who completed their entire undergraduate training in Argentina. Ties break first on the higher exam score, then on the greater number of days since graduation. There is no interview stage in the merit formula for básicas.

What specific Argentine and CABA legal frameworks are tested on the exam?

The exam tests Ley Básica de Salud de la Ciudad de Buenos Aires (Ley 153), Ley de Derechos del Paciente e Historia Clínica (Ley 26.529), Ley Nacional de Salud Mental (Ley 26.657), Ley de Acceso a la Interrupción Voluntaria del Embarazo (Ley 27.610 - IVE/ILE), and Ley de Profesionales de la Salud de la CABA (Ley 6.035).

Is this practice question bank in English or Spanish?

This practice question bank is an English-language MCQ study adaptation designed to thoroughly test the full clinical, theoretical, and statutory scope of the CABA Medicina paper, while preserving Argentine legal citations, official program names, and local public health terminology in Spanish.

What is the registration fee for the CABA residency contest?

Resolución 1567/GCABA-MSGC/26 does not set any arancel or examination fee for the concurso, and none is published on the GCABA concurso page. Confirm the current requirements on the official page before registering.