28+ Free Armenia Healthcare Licensing Exam Practice Questions

Prepare for the Centralized Examination for Individual and Transitional Individual Licenses of Senior Healthcare Workers (Armenia) exam with instant access — no signup required.

✓ No registration✓ No credit card✓ No hidden fees✓ Start practicing immediately

28+ Questions

100% Free

Loading practice questions...

2026 Statistics

Key Facts: Armenia Healthcare Licensing Exam Exam

Transitional individual license

2026 Route

RA Law on Medical Care and Services to the Population

Computer test + simulated practical tasks

Stages

Minister of Health Order N 131-N

At least 30 items

Official Test Count

Minister of Health Order N 131-N

At least 3 tasks

Practical Count

Minister of Health Order N 131-N

70% test; 70% on every task

Passing Standard

Minister of Health Order N 131-N

First aid + healthcare-worker ethics

2026 Test Scope

Minister of Health Order N 131-N and NIH topic lists

Not published in reviewed rules

Official Delivery Language

Current Order N 131-N and licensing law

The live 2026 transitional-license examination tests first medical aid and professional ethics in a computer stage followed by mandatory simulated practical tasks. The official rules set minimums rather than a fixed 100-question, 120-minute blueprint.

Sample Armenia Healthcare Licensing Exam Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your Armenia Healthcare Licensing Exam exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 28+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 58-year-old man with hypertension and hyperlipidemia presents with 90 minutes of severe crushing retrosternal chest pain radiating to his left shoulder and jaw, accompanied by diaphoresis. An immediate 12-lead ECG demonstrates 3 mm ST-segment elevation in leads V1 through V4. The nearest percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)-capable medical center is 25 minutes away. What is the most appropriate reperfusion strategy?

A.Administer intravenous unfractionated heparin and monitor cardiac troponins without reperfusion

B.Transfer immediately for primary percutaneous coronary intervention within the recommended reperfusion window

C.Administer fibrinolytic therapy and defer angiography for 48 hours despite timely PCI access

D.Perform computed tomography coronary angiography before antiplatelet therapy

Explanation: This presentation is an acute anterior ST-elevation myocardial infarction. Primary PCI is preferred when it can be delivered within 120 minutes of diagnosis; a 25-minute transfer makes timely mechanical reperfusion feasible. Antithrombotic treatment accompanies, but does not replace, urgent reperfusion.

2A 52-year-old man has a blood pressure of 210/120 mmHg and a mild tension-type headache but no visual disturbance, chest pain, dyspnea, focal neurologic deficit, papilledema, acute kidney injury, or troponin elevation. What is the most appropriate management approach?

A.Use intravenous nitroprusside to lower mean arterial pressure by 50% within 1 hour

B.Start or adjust oral antihypertensive therapy and arrange prompt outpatient reassessment

C.Give intravenous labetalol and obtain an emergency contrast head CT despite no neurologic findings

D.Administer immediate-release sublingual nifedipine to normalize the pressure rapidly

Explanation: This is severe blood-pressure elevation without acute target-organ injury, not a hypertensive emergency. Oral treatment and close follow-up are appropriate, with gradual pressure reduction over days rather than abrupt intravenous lowering. A new symptom or objective organ injury would change the pathway to emergency treatment.

3A 24-year-old woman with persistent asthma presents with acute dyspnea and expiratory wheezing. She has used her salbutamol inhaler four times in the past 2 hours with little relief. Respiratory rate is 26/min, bilateral wheezing is present, and peak expiratory flow is 55% of predicted. What is the immediate first-line management?

A.Subcutaneous epinephrine and immediate endotracheal intubation

B.Repeated inhaled short-acting beta-2 agonist through a spacer or nebulizer plus early systemic corticosteroid therapy

C.Intravenous magnesium sulfate as monotherapy without an inhaled bronchodilator

D.Oral montelukast and chest physiotherapy

Explanation: A moderate-to-severe asthma exacerbation requires repeated inhaled short-acting bronchodilator treatment and early systemic corticosteroids. Ipratropium can be added in a severe exacerbation, while oxygen is titrated when hypoxemia is present. Response must be reassessed promptly so refractory or deteriorating disease is escalated.

4A 19-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes has abdominal pain, vomiting, and Kussmaul respirations. Blood glucose is 420 mg/dL, arterial pH 7.18, bicarbonate 10 mEq/L, anion gap 24 mEq/L, beta-hydroxybutyrate is positive, and serum potassium is 4.8 mEq/L. Which treatment plan addresses the three central components of diabetic ketoacidosis management?

A.Routine bicarbonate bolus, subcutaneous basal insulin alone, and oral potassium

B.Isotonic intravenous fluid, continuous intravenous regular insulin, and monitored potassium replacement

C.Initial dextrose bolus, high-dose furosemide, and empiric antibiotics

D.Fluid restriction, subcutaneous regular insulin, and a cephalosporin

Explanation: DKA treatment restores intravascular volume, stops ketogenesis with intravenous insulin, and prevents treatment-induced hypokalemia through frequent potassium measurement and replacement. With potassium at 4.8 mEq/L, potassium is added as levels fall while insulin continues. The precipitating cause must also be sought and treated.

5A trauma patient has no uncontrolled catastrophic external hemorrhage. In what order should the structured primary survey proceed while immediately treating life-threatening findings?

A.Circulation, Airway, Breathing, Disability, Exposure

B.Airway with cervical-spine protection, Breathing, Circulation with hemorrhage control, Disability, Exposure with environmental control

C.Breathing, Airway, Circulation, Exposure, Disability

D.Disability, Circulation, Breathing, Airway, Exposure

Explanation: The trauma primary survey uses ABCDE: airway with cervical-spine motion restriction, breathing and ventilation, circulation with hemorrhage control, disability assessment, and exposure while preventing hypothermia. Catastrophic external bleeding is controlled immediately before or alongside this sequence when present. Resuscitation occurs concurrently as threats are identified.

6A 25-year-old man with a stab wound to the right chest is severely dyspneic and hypotensive. The right hemithorax has absent breath sounds and hyperresonance, with distended neck veins and leftward tracheal deviation. What is the immediate intervention?

A.Transfer for chest CT before treatment

B.Begin high-pressure positive-pressure ventilation before pleural decompression

C.Immediate right pleural decompression, followed by tube thoracostomy

D.Perform subxiphoid pericardiocentesis

Explanation: The findings indicate tension pneumothorax with obstructive shock. Pleural decompression must occur immediately and should not wait for imaging; the exact needle or finger technique follows local capability and protocol, commonly using the fourth or fifth intercostal space. A chest tube then provides definitive ongoing drainage.

7A trauma patient with active hemorrhage remains hypotensive despite initial resuscitation, and the hospital activates a ratio-based massive transfusion protocol. Which option represents a commonly used balanced blood-component strategy while definitive hemorrhage control proceeds?

A.Four units of red blood cells to one unit of plasma with no platelets

B.Ten units of red blood cells to one unit each of plasma and platelets plus large-volume saline

C.Approximately 1 unit of red blood cells to 1 unit of plasma to 1 adult dose of platelets, adjusted by the local protocol and laboratory or viscoelastic results

D.Red blood cells alone until hemoglobin reaches 12 g/dL

Explanation: Balanced component resuscitation approximating a 1:1:1 ratio is a common empiric massive-transfusion strategy, limiting dilutional coagulopathy while surgical or interventional hemorrhage control is obtained. Trials have also studied 1:1:2 strategies, so clinicians follow the activated local protocol and refine therapy with coagulation or viscoelastic testing. This ratio is not a substitute for definitive bleeding control.

8A full-term newborn remains apneic after warming, drying, positioning, and stimulation. The heart rate is 70/min. According to current neonatal resuscitation guidance, what is the immediate next step?

A.Start chest compressions immediately at a 3:1 ratio

B.Give intravenous epinephrine through an umbilical venous catheter

C.Begin effective positive-pressure ventilation with room air and apply pulse oximetry

D.Administer endotracheal sodium bicarbonate

Explanation: A newborn who is apneic or whose heart rate remains below 100/min after initial steps needs positive-pressure ventilation. For a term infant, ventilation begins with 21% oxygen at 30 to 60 inflations per minute, and an increasing heart rate is the key sign of effective ventilation. Compressions are added only if the heart rate remains below 60/min after 30 seconds of ventilation that moves the chest.

9A previously healthy 20-month-old child has one generalized tonic-clonic seizure lasting 3 minutes during a fever of 39.4°C. The child is now alert and playful with a normal neurologic examination and no meningeal signs. What is the most appropriate management?

A.Diagnose epilepsy and prescribe daily phenobarbital or valproate for 2 years

B.Treat as bacterial meningitis with 14 days of empiric intravenous antibiotics without further assessment

C.Diagnose a simple febrile seizure, evaluate and treat the fever source, reassure the family, and avoid routine long-term antiseizure therapy

D.Obtain emergency brain MRI and continuous EEG in every case

Explanation: A simple febrile seizure occurs from age 6 months through 5 years, is generalized, lasts less than 15 minutes, and does not recur within 24 hours in a neurologically healthy child. Management focuses on finding the source of fever, providing family education, and using antipyretics for comfort. Antipyretics do not reliably prevent another febrile seizure, and chronic antiseizure medication is not routine.

10A patient at 36 weeks of pregnancy has preeclampsia with blood pressure 175/115 mmHg, severe headache, right-upper-quadrant pain, elevated transaminases, and platelets of 85,000/mcL. Which immediate pharmacologic plan addresses seizure prevention and acute severe hypertension?

A.Intravenous diazepam plus a bitten sublingual nifedipine capsule

B.Oral furosemide plus intramuscular phenytoin

C.Intravenous magnesium sulfate plus a rapid-acting agent such as intravenous labetalol or hydralazine

D.Intravenous sodium nitroprusside plus subcutaneous heparin

Explanation: Preeclampsia with severe features requires magnesium sulfate for eclampsia prophylaxis and prompt treatment of persistent severe hypertension to reduce maternal stroke risk. Intravenous labetalol, intravenous hydralazine, or immediate-release oral nifedipine tablets are accepted rapid-acting choices. Stabilization is followed by obstetric planning for delivery.

About the Armenia Healthcare Licensing Exam Exam

Armenia's centralized assessment supports two statutory license routes for senior healthcare workers. In 2026, the active route is the transitional individual license used during postgraduate professional education; the broader individual-license requirement takes effect on January 1, 2027. The examination has a computer test and mandatory simulated practical tasks. For transitional applicants, the test scope is healthcare-worker ethics and first medical aid. For individual-license applicants, the rules add the candidate's main specialty. Ministry of Health examination commissions conduct the examination, while the National Institute of Health's National Center for Professional Activity Certification performs preparatory and administrative work.

Assessment

Two mandatory stages: a computer test with at least 30 items, followed within 5 working days by at least 3 practical tasks performed in a simulated environment.

Time Limit

At least 2 minutes per computer-test item; at least 10 minutes per practical task

Passing Score

At least 70% on the computer test and at least 70% on every practical task

Exam Fee

No separate exam fee published; license duty AMD 3,000 transitional / AMD 6,000 individual, subject to exemptions (Republic of Armenia Ministry of Health examination commissions, supported administratively by the NIH National Center for Professional Activity Certification)

Armenia Healthcare Licensing Exam Exam Content Outline

5 of 28 practice questions; official weight not published

Cardiac Emergencies and Resuscitation

Acute coronary syndromes, rhythm emergencies, cardiac arrest, defibrillation, and reversible arrest causes from the official first-aid preparation scope.

4 of 28 practice questions; official weight not published

Airway, Respiratory Emergencies, and Shock

Acute asthma, tension pneumothorax, septic shock, and anaphylaxis from the official respiratory and shock clusters.

3 of 28 practice questions; official weight not published

Trauma and Disaster Response

Primary trauma assessment, hemorrhage resuscitation, and mass-casualty triage aligned to the official trauma and disaster topics.

5 of 28 practice questions; official weight not published

Metabolic and Toxicologic Emergencies

Diabetic ketoacidosis and common poisonings, including carbon monoxide, acetaminophen, opioids, and organophosphates.

3 of 28 practice questions; official weight not published

Pediatric and Obstetric Emergencies

Neonatal ventilation, febrile seizure assessment, and severe preeclampsia from the official pediatric and obstetric emergency topics.

8 of 28 practice questions; official weight not published

Professional Ethics and Patient Rights

Public-health reporting, dignity, medical secrecy, consent, evidence-based practice, professional respect, conflicts of interest, and emergency decisions.

How to Pass the Armenia Healthcare Licensing Exam Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: At least 70% on the computer test and at least 70% on every practical task
Assessment: Two mandatory stages: a computer test with at least 30 items, followed within 5 working days by at least 3 practical tasks performed in a simulated environment.
Time limit: At least 2 minutes per computer-test item; at least 10 minutes per practical task
Exam fee: No separate exam fee published; license duty AMD 3,000 transitional / AMD 6,000 individual, subject to exemptions

Keys to Passing

Work through all 28 available questions
Review every answer and explanation
Track weak areas and revisit them
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

Armenia Healthcare Licensing Exam Study Tips from Top Performers

1Use NIH's current first-aid topic and reference lists as the controlling scope; do not rely on an invented universal specialty blueprint for the 2026 transitional route.

2Practice high-quality CPR, airway opening, foreign-body removal, defibrillator use, and hemorrhage control hands-on because the official second stage evaluates simulated skills.

3Review cardiac, respiratory, shock, trauma, pediatric, obstetric, toxicologic, and disaster-response algorithms from current clinical guidance.

4Read Government Decision N 182-N for the exact professional-ethics duties and the Medical Care Law for consent and medical-secrecy rules.

5For each scenario, distinguish the first life-saving action from adjuncts that may follow after stabilization.

6Check the Ministry of Health and NIH pages for the current schedule, application, and any updated official preparation documents.

Frequently Asked Questions

Is the Armenia healthcare licensing examination operating in 2026?

Yes. Transitional individual licensing took effect on January 1, 2026, and NIH reports candidates completing both examination stages. The general individual-license requirement begins on January 1, 2027.

Who conducts the centralized examination?

Examination commissions created by the Ministry of Health conduct it. NIH's National Center for Professional Activity Certification performs preparatory and administrative work and publishes schedules and preparation materials.

What are the official format, item count, and duration?

There is a computer test with at least 30 items and at least 2 minutes per item, followed within 5 working days by at least 3 practical tasks in a simulated environment, with at least 10 minutes per task. No fixed total item count or fixed total duration is published in Order N 131-N.

What is the passing requirement?

A candidate needs at least 70% on the computer test and at least 70% on each individual practical task. Failing any practical task means the practical stage is not passed.

What does the 2026 transitional-license test cover?

The official rules specify healthcare-worker ethics and first medical aid. NIH publishes separate official topic and reference lists for both clusters.

What does the license cost?

Order N 131-N does not publish a separate examination fee. The State Duty Law sets the license duty at AMD 3,000 for a transitional individual license and AMD 6,000 for an individual license, with statutory exemptions for specified applicants.

What language is the official examination delivered in?

The current examination procedure and licensing law reviewed for this page do not publish a delivery-language list. NIH's official preparation materials are published in Armenian, so no officialLanguage code is asserted here.

Does this practice bank reproduce the official examination?

No. It is an English-language, four-option multiple-choice study adaptation. It is not an official translation, does not simulate every official item type, and cannot replace hands-on preparation for the mandatory practical tasks.