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100+ Free ACVP Veterinary Pathology Practice Questions

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A dog's liver shows firm, tan, wedge-shaped areas with preserved tissue architecture on histology — no nuclei in hepatocytes but cellular outlines remain. This pattern represents which type of necrosis?

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B
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to track
2026 Statistics

Key Facts: ACVP Veterinary Pathology Exam

~100

Total Practice Items

OpenExamPrep ACVP 2026 question set

Multi-day

Exam Format

Phase 1 (1 day) + Phase 2 (2-3 days with practical)

~15%

Neoplasia Weight

Largest single domain on 2026 ACVP blueprint

~$1,500-2,500

2026 Phase 1 + 2 Fee

ACVP (verify current schedule)

3 yr

Residency Required

ACVP-approved anatomic or clinical pathology residency

~50-70%

First-Time Pass Rate

ACVP annual statistics

The ACVP Certifying Exam is a multi-day in-person board administered by the American College of Veterinary Pathologists. Phase 1 covers general pathology; Phase 2 covers specialty Anatomic and/or Clinical Pathology with practical slide/gross/clin-path components. Blueprint weights: neoplasia ~15%, clin-path hematology ~12%, cytology ~10%, general pathology ~10%, infectious ~8%, clin-path chemistry ~8%, histotechniques ~8%, IHC ~8%, necropsy ~8%, molecular ~6%, parasitology ~5%, urinalysis ~4%, endocrine ~4%, coagulation ~3%, cardio/resp ~3%. Fees ~$1,500-$2,500 total; requires DVM/VMD plus an ACVP-approved residency (~3 years) with a peer-reviewed first-author publication.

Sample ACVP Veterinary Pathology Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your ACVP Veterinary Pathology exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A dog's liver shows firm, tan, wedge-shaped areas with preserved tissue architecture on histology — no nuclei in hepatocytes but cellular outlines remain. This pattern represents which type of necrosis?
A.Liquefactive necrosis
B.Caseous necrosis
C.Coagulative necrosis
D.Fat necrosis
Explanation: Coagulative necrosis preserves tissue architecture (ghost outlines) with loss of nuclei (karyolysis/pyknosis/karyorrhexis) — typical of ischemic injury in solid organs except brain. Liquefactive occurs in CNS and abscesses; caseous in mycobacterial/fungal infections; fat necrosis in pancreatitis/adipose trauma.
2Which feature BEST distinguishes apoptosis from necrosis histologically?
A.Neutrophilic inflammation surrounds apoptotic cells
B.Apoptosis shows individual cell shrinkage with intact membranes and no inflammation
C.Apoptosis always occurs in sheets of cells
D.Necrosis preserves cell membranes
Explanation: Apoptosis = programmed cell death with cell shrinkage, chromatin condensation, apoptotic body formation, intact membranes, and NO inflammatory response. Necrosis involves membrane rupture, release of DAMPs, and inflammation. Apoptosis typically affects single cells; necrosis affects groups.
3A cat with flea allergy dermatitis shows perivascular eosinophilic infiltrates. This represents which type of hypersensitivity?
A.Type I (IgE-mediated)
B.Type II (cytotoxic)
C.Type III (immune complex)
D.Type IV (delayed)
Explanation: Flea bite hypersensitivity is predominantly Type I (IgE-mediated) with mast cell degranulation and eosinophil recruitment, though a Type IV delayed component exists. Type II = IMHA/ITP; Type III = glomerulonephritis/SLE; Type IV = contact dermatitis, tuberculin reaction.
4Granulomatous inflammation is characterized by which predominant cell type?
A.Neutrophils and fibrin
B.Lymphocytes only
C.Epithelioid macrophages and multinucleated giant cells
D.Eosinophils and basophils
Explanation: Granulomas consist of epithelioid macrophages (activated, abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm) often fused into multinucleated giant cells (Langhans, foreign body, or Touton), frequently with a lymphocyte cuff. Seen with mycobacteria, systemic fungi, FIP, and foreign bodies.
5Which histologic feature BEST distinguishes a malignant from a benign neoplasm?
A.Large size
B.Invasion of surrounding tissue / metastasis
C.High cellularity
D.Presence of mitoses alone
Explanation: Invasion across basement membranes / into surrounding tissue or metastasis is the defining feature of malignancy. Pleomorphism, high mitotic count, anisokaryosis/cytosis, and necrosis support malignancy but invasion/metastasis is definitive. Benign tumors can be large and mitotically active but stay encapsulated.
6Pancreatic fat necrosis in a dog with pancreatitis shows which classic gross appearance?
A.Hemorrhagic wedges
B.Chalky white opaque foci ('soap')
C.Yellow caseous material
D.Red infarcts
Explanation: Fat necrosis creates chalky white opaque deposits from saponification — released pancreatic lipase hydrolyzes triglycerides, freeing fatty acids that bind calcium to form calcium soaps. Seen with pancreatitis and adipose trauma.
7Which cells are the hallmark of acute inflammation in most species?
A.Plasma cells
B.Lymphocytes
C.Neutrophils
D.Macrophages
Explanation: Neutrophils dominate acute inflammation (first 24-48h). Chronic inflammation shifts to macrophages, lymphocytes, and plasma cells. Eosinophils predominate in parasitic/allergic reactions; mast cells in immediate hypersensitivity.
8A brain lesion in a dog with bacterial meningoencephalitis shows soft, semi-liquid cavitation. Which necrosis type is this?
A.Coagulative
B.Liquefactive
C.Caseous
D.Gangrenous
Explanation: CNS and bacterial abscesses undergo liquefactive necrosis — hydrolytic enzymes from neutrophils/lysosomes digest tissue into viscous liquid. Brain has little connective tissue to maintain architecture and high lipid content, favoring liquefaction.
9Caseous necrosis with 'cottage cheese' appearance in a cow's lung most likely indicates which agent?
A.Escherichia coli
B.Mycobacterium bovis
C.Pasteurella multocida
D.Aspergillus fumigatus
Explanation: Caseous necrosis (granular eosinophilic amorphous debris with loss of architecture) is classic for mycobacterial infection — M. bovis tuberculosis, M. avium, caseous lymphadenitis (C. pseudotuberculosis in sheep/goats). Systemic fungi may also cause caseation.
10Immune complex deposition in glomerular basement membrane leading to glomerulonephritis represents which hypersensitivity type?
A.Type I
B.Type II
C.Type III
D.Type IV
Explanation: Type III hypersensitivity = antigen-antibody complexes deposited in tissues (glomeruli, vessels, joints), activating complement and causing neutrophilic inflammation. Examples: membranous glomerulonephritis, SLE, Arthus reaction, infectious canine hepatitis 'blue eye'.

About the ACVP Veterinary Pathology Exam

The ACVP Veterinary Pathology Certifying Examination is the two-phase board exam for veterinary anatomic and clinical pathologists. Phase 1 tests general pathology mechanisms (cell injury, inflammation, neoplasia, hemodynamics, genetics, histotechniques and special stains). Phase 2 is specialty-specific — Anatomic Pathology (systemic gross/histology across species, infectious disease, parasitology, necropsy) and/or Clinical Pathology (hematology — IMHA/Heinz bodies/leukograms, chemistry — hepatic/renal/electrolytes/protein, cytology — effusions/FNAs/BAL/CSF, coagulation — DIC/vWD/rodenticide, urinalysis with crystals/casts). Questions emphasize immunohistochemistry panels (CD3/CD20/CD79a/Pax5/c-KIT/Ki-67/S100), molecular diagnostics (PARR clonality, c-KIT ITD, BRAF V595E), Patnaik/Kiupel MCT grading, FIP coronavirus spike 3c mutation, Coombs/spherocytes/IMHA, and classic infectious agents (Blastomyces broad-based budding, Cryptococcus India ink, Negri bodies rabies). Requires DVM/VMD and completion of an ACVP-approved residency (typically 3 years) with a peer-reviewed first-author publication.

Questions

100 scored questions

Time Limit

Multi-day certifying exam — Phase 1 (1 day) + Phase 2 (2-3 days with practical)

Passing Score

Criterion-referenced passing standard set by ACVP examination committees (modified Angoff)

Exam Fee

~$1,500-$2,500 total for Phase 1 + Phase 2 (ACVP 2026 — verify current schedule) (American College of Veterinary Pathologists (ACVP))

ACVP Veterinary Pathology Exam Content Outline

~15%

Neoplasia & Tumor Pathology

Round cell tumors (lymphoma, MCT, histiocytoma, plasmacytoma, TVT), Patnaik 3-tier and Kiupel 2-tier MCT grading, canine lymphoma WHO classification, PARR PCR for clonality (IgH B-cell vs TCR gamma T-cell), IHC lymphoid panel (CD3, CD20, CD79a, Pax5, CD21, MUM1/IRF4), c-KIT (CD117, KIT exon 8/11 ITD in high-grade MCT), Ki-67 proliferation, feline injection-site sarcoma, hemangiosarcoma (splenic, cardiac right atrial), osteosarcoma (appendicular metaphyseal), transitional cell carcinoma (BRAF V595E).

~12%

Clinical Pathology — Hematology

Regenerative vs non-regenerative anemia, reticulocyte count, spherocytes (IMHA — slide agglutination, Coombs/DAT positive), Heinz bodies (acetaminophen toxicity in cats — methemoglobinemia, onion/garlic allium, zinc toxicosis — pennies post-1982), eccentrocytes, schistocytes (DIC, microangiopathic), Howell-Jolly bodies (splenectomy/splenic dysfunction), basophilic stippling (lead poisoning or regeneration), nucleated RBCs, leukocyte responses (neutrophilic left shift with toxic change), bone marrow cytology, Pelger-Huët anomaly, greyhound/sighthound reference intervals.

~10%

Cytology

FNA and impression smear preparation, criteria of malignancy (anisocytosis, anisokaryosis, macrokaryosis, prominent/multiple nucleoli, multinucleation, bizarre mitoses), inflammation patterns (suppurative, pyogranulomatous, eosinophilic, lymphoplasmacytic), effusions classification (transudate <2.5 g/dL protein, modified transudate, exudate — septic with degenerate neutrophils, chylous — triglycerides, neoplastic, FIP high protein low cellularity pyogranulomatous), CSF, synovial fluid, BAL/TTW, vaginal cytology (cornified superficial — estrus), India ink for Cryptococcus capsule, broad-based budding Blastomyces.

~10%

General Pathology

Reversible vs irreversible cell injury, apoptosis (caspase cascade, Bcl-2/Bax, intrinsic vs extrinsic) vs necrosis, necrosis patterns (coagulative — ischemic, liquefactive — CNS and abscess, caseous — TB/fungal, fat — pancreatitis), acute vs chronic vs granulomatous inflammation, wound healing phases, hemodynamics (Virchow's triad for thrombosis, DIC, shock — hypovolemic/cardiogenic/distributive/obstructive), neoplasia hallmarks, oncogenes and tumor suppressors (p53, Rb, APC), amyloidosis (AA reactive, AL primary, apple-green birefringence with Congo red under polarized light).

~8%

Infectious Disease Pathology

Feline infectious peritonitis (coronavirus spike gene 3c mutation enables macrophage tropism, pyogranulomatous vasculitis, wet/effusive and dry/granulomatous forms), canine distemper (eosinophilic intracytoplasmic and intranuclear inclusions in epithelium), parvovirus (intestinal crypt necrosis, lymphoid depletion), rabies Negri bodies (hippocampus and cerebellar Purkinje cells), herpesviruses (intranuclear Cowdry type A inclusions), Johne's disease (Mycobacterium avium paratuberculosis — Ziehl-Neelsen acid-fast), Blastomyces (broad-based budding), Cryptococcus (narrow-based budding with thick capsule — India ink, mucicarmine), Histoplasma (intracellular in macrophages), Aspergillus (45° septate hyphae), Pythium (broad non-septate, H&E negative — GMS positive), Toxoplasma/Neospora (Neospora more common myositis/neurologic in dogs).

~8%

Clinical Pathology — Chemistry

Hepatic enzymes — ALT (hepatocellular leakage, half-life longer in dogs vs cats), ALP (cholestasis, steroid-induced in dogs, bone isoform in growing animals, feline ALP very specific due to short half-life), GGT (cholestasis; high in colostrum of neonatal calves/foals), AST (hepatic and muscle). Hepatic function — bile acids (pre/post-prandial, portosystemic shunt), ammonia, albumin (synthetic), BUN (low in liver failure/PSS). Renal — creatinine, SDMA (earlier CKD marker), phosphorus, USG. Electrolytes — Na:K <27 suggests hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's). Hypercalcemia differentials — GOSHDARN-IT (granulomatous, osteolytic, spurious, hyperparathyroidism primary, D vitamin toxicosis, Addison's, renal, neoplasia — lymphoma/AGASACA/multiple myeloma, idiopathic cats, temperature).

~8%

Histopathology Techniques

10% neutral-buffered formalin fixation (10:1 volume ratio, penetration ~1 mm/hr, 24-48 hr for routine), alternative fixatives (Bouin's for testis/eye, Carnoy's for lipids, glutaraldehyde for EM), decalcification (EDTA preserves IHC antigenicity better than acid-based), processing dehydration/clearing/infiltration, microtomy 3-5 μm, H&E. Special stains — PAS (fungi, basement membrane, glycogen), GMS (fungi black), Ziehl-Neelsen (acid-fast bacteria red — Mycobacterium, Nocardia with modified), Giemsa (blood parasites, mast cell granules metachromatic, Helicobacter), Masson trichrome (collagen blue/green, muscle red), Congo red (amyloid — apple-green birefringence with polarization), Prussian blue/Perls (iron/hemosiderin blue), von Kossa (calcium black), reticulin (type III collagen), oil red O (lipid — frozen).

~8%

Immunohistochemistry & Ancillary Diagnostics

Lymphoid — CD3 (T-cell cytoplasmic), CD20 and CD79a and Pax5 (B-cell nuclear Pax5), CD21 (mature B and follicular dendritic), MUM1/IRF4 (plasma cells and activated B). Epithelial — pan-cytokeratin AE1/AE3, CK7/CK20 patterns, E-cadherin membranous. Mesenchymal — vimentin, smooth muscle actin, desmin, S100, myogenin/MyoD (rhabdomyosarcoma). Melanocytic — S100, Melan-A, PNL2, SOX10. Endothelial — CD31, factor VIII, von Willebrand factor (hemangiosarcoma). Proliferation — Ki-67 (MIB-1), PCNA. Mast cell — c-KIT/CD117 with pattern I membranous (better prognosis) vs II/III cytoplasmic (worse). GIST — c-KIT and DOG1. Neuroendocrine — chromogranin A, synaptophysin, NSE. Positive/negative controls, antigen retrieval (HIER citrate pH 6 vs EDTA pH 9, enzymatic).

~8%

Necropsy & Gross Pathology

Systematic postmortem examination with standard techniques per species (small animal left lateral recumbency, large animal left lateral with upper limbs reflected, equine/bovine in situ GI). External/internal inspection, organ weights, sampling for histopathology, culture (fresh sterile), toxicology (stomach content/liver/kidney frozen), ancillary tests (PCR, IHC). Fixation 10:1 formalin:tissue. Zoonotic precautions (rabies — Negri bodies and direct fluorescent antibody, anthrax — do not open carcass suspected, Brucella, Mycobacterium bovis, Yersinia pestis plague, Francisella tularensis, avian influenza HPAI). Postmortem change vs antemortem lesions (pseudomelanosis, bile imbibition, hemoglobin imbibition, hypostatic congestion). Forensic necropsy — chain of custody, photograph everything, preserve evidence.

~6%

Molecular Diagnostics

Conventional and real-time qPCR, digital droplet PCR sensitivity. PARR (PCR for antigen receptor rearrangement) — IgH heavy chain for B-cell clonality, TCR gamma for T-cell clonality (monoclonal band vs polyclonal smear — distinguishes neoplasia from reactive); limitations include false negatives and cross-lineage rearrangements. c-KIT exon 8 and 11 internal tandem duplications in high-grade mast cell tumors (worse prognosis, toceranib/masitinib tyrosine kinase inhibitor response). BRAF V595E mutation in >80% of canine urothelial/prostatic carcinomas (urine-based diagnostic test). In situ hybridization (RNAscope, FISH). Next-generation sequencing for research/clinical. Transmissible venereal tumor clonally transmitted (LINE-1 retrotransposon into c-myc — founder cell ~6000 years ago).

~5%

Parasitology

GI helminths — Toxocara canis (transplacental, transmammary, zoonotic larva migrans), hookworms (Ancylostoma — melena, regenerative anemia), Trichuris (whipworm — cecum/colon). Cestodes — Taenia, Echinococcus (zoonotic hydatid disease), Dipylidium caninum (flea intermediate). Trematodes — Fasciola hepatica (ruminant liver flukes), Paragonimus kellicotti (lung). Protozoa — Giardia trophozoites/cysts, Cryptosporidium (acid-fast oocysts), Isospora, Sarcocystis (muscle). Arthropods — Demodex cigar-shaped deep, Sarcoptes round burrowing with intense pruritus, Cheyletiella walking dandruff, Otodectes ear. Heartworm Dirofilaria immitis (adults in pulmonary arteries and right heart, microfilariae in blood — Knott's test; antigen ELISA = adult female protein).

~4%

Urinalysis

Specific gravity interpretation (dog <1.030 inappropriate if dehydrated/azotemic, cat <1.035; hyposthenuria <1.008, isosthenuria 1.008-1.012). Dipstick — protein (requires UPC confirmation; <0.2 normal dog, <0.4 cat), glucose (diabetes, proximal tubular dysfunction — Fanconi), ketones, bilirubin (trace normal in concentrated dog urine, abnormal in cats), blood (hematuria/hemoglobinuria/myoglobinuria). Sediment — casts (hyaline benign, granular/cellular tubular injury, waxy chronic), crystals (struvite/MAP coffin-lid, calcium oxalate monohydrate picket-fence and dihydrate envelope, ammonium urate in Dalmatians/PSS, cystine hexagonal — cystinuria, bilirubin). UPC, urine cortisol:creatinine, fractional electrolyte excretion.

~4%

Endocrine Pathology

Hyperadrenocorticism — PDH (pituitary-dependent ~85%) vs ADH (adrenal tumor ~15%); LDDS screening test, HDDS and endogenous ACTH to differentiate, ACTH stim. Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's) — Na:K ratio <27, ACTH stim confirms. Diabetes mellitus — type 1 insulin-dependent dogs, type 2 with amyloidosis of islets in cats, fructosamine (2-3 week glycemic average). Thyroid — feline hyperthyroidism (adenomatous hyperplasia/adenoma, rarely carcinoma), canine hypothyroidism (lymphocytic thyroiditis autoimmune), C-cell/medullary carcinoma (calcitonin, amyloid in bulls). Parathyroid — primary HPT (functional adenoma — hypercalcemia, low phosphorus, normal/low PTHrP, high PTH). Pheochromocytoma (chromaffin cells adrenal medulla, catecholamine-secreting). Insulinoma (beta-cell — Whipple's triad).

~3%

Coagulation & Hemostasis

Primary hemostasis — platelets and von Willebrand factor; thrombocytopenia (ITP immune-mediated, infectious Ehrlichia/Anaplasma/Rickettsia, DIC consumptive, marrow). vWD type 1 Dobermans most common. BMBT screens primary hemostasis. Secondary hemostasis — PT (extrinsic — tissue factor + VII, prolonged first with rodenticide due to factor VII short half-life), aPTT (intrinsic — VIII, IX, XI, XII; hemophilia A = VIII, hemophilia B = IX, X-linked). Thrombin time, fibrinogen, D-dimers, antithrombin. DIC (consumption — thrombocytopenia, schistocytes, prolonged PT/aPTT, low fibrinogen, elevated D-dimers/FDPs). Anticoagulant rodenticide (warfarin/brodifacoum) — vitamin K1 treatment, prolonged PT first.

~3%

Cardiovascular & Respiratory Pathology

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy — feline, MYBPC3 mutation in Maine Coons and Ragdolls, concentric LV hypertrophy with interventricular septum thickening, LA dilation predisposes to thromboembolism (saddle thrombus). Dilated cardiomyopathy — Doberman/Great Dane; Boxer ARVC (plakophilin/desmoplakin); taurine deficiency in cats historic and now implicated in some dogs with grain-free/legume-heavy diets. Myxomatous mitral valve disease (endocardiosis) — small breeds CKCS, degenerative valve, regurgitation. Bacterial endocarditis. Respiratory — feline asthma (eosinophilic airway inflammation, smooth muscle hypertrophy), canine chronic bronchitis, bacterial bronchopneumonia (cranioventral — aspiration), pulmonary edema (cardiogenic vs non-cardiogenic — ALI/ARDS), PIE/eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy, primary pulmonary carcinoma vs metastasis.

How to Pass the ACVP Veterinary Pathology Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Criterion-referenced passing standard set by ACVP examination committees (modified Angoff)
  • Exam length: 100 questions
  • Time limit: Multi-day certifying exam — Phase 1 (1 day) + Phase 2 (2-3 days with practical)
  • Exam fee: ~$1,500-$2,500 total for Phase 1 + Phase 2 (ACVP 2026 — verify current schedule)

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

ACVP Veterinary Pathology Study Tips from Top Performers

1Mast cell tumor grading: Patnaik is 3-tier (I well-differentiated, II intermediate, III poorly-differentiated — based on mitoses, cellularity, nuclear pleomorphism, invasion). Kiupel is 2-tier (low vs high grade — any ONE of: >7 mitoses/10 HPF, >3 multinucleated cells/10 HPF, >3 bizarre nuclei/10 HPF, karyomegaly with >10% nuclear diameter variation). c-KIT IHC pattern I (membranous) = better prognosis; pattern II/III (cytoplasmic/perinuclear) = worse prognosis. c-KIT exon 8 and 11 internal tandem duplications correlate with high-grade behavior and toceranib/masitinib response.
2IMHA workup (immune-mediated hemolytic anemia): spherocytes on smear (small, dense, no central pallor), hyperbilirubinemia/bilirubinuria, regenerative anemia (with delay), slide agglutination test (1 drop EDTA blood + 1 drop saline — persistent agglutination positive after saline washout). Coombs/direct antiglobulin test confirmatory. Differentiate from zinc toxicosis (pennies post-1982, eccentrocytes, Heinz bodies), oxidative injury (acetaminophen cats — methemoglobinemia, Heinz bodies), and microangiopathic (schistocytes with DIC/hemangiosarcoma).
3FIP (feline infectious peritonitis): caused by feline coronavirus with spike gene 3c mutation that enables macrophage tropism and systemic disease. Pyogranulomatous vasculitis is the hallmark. Wet (effusive) form — high-protein effusion >3.5 g/dL with low-moderate cellularity (mostly macrophages and non-degenerate neutrophils), yellow-viscous; A:G ratio <0.4. Dry form — pyogranulomatous nodules in organs (kidneys — target lesions, liver, mesenteric LN, CNS, eyes). IHC for coronavirus antigen in macrophages within lesions is confirmatory (not serology). GS-441524/remdesivir changed treatment landscape.
4PARR (PCR for antigen receptor rearrangement) interpretation: a MONOCLONAL band supports lymphoid neoplasia (same V-D-J rearrangement expanded from a single clone); POLYCLONAL smear supports reactive lymphoid proliferation. Primers: IgH for B cells (detects ~70-90% of B-cell lymphomas), TCR gamma for T cells. Pitfalls — false negative if primers miss the clonal rearrangement (~10-20%), cross-lineage rearrangements (T-cell lymphoma with IgH rearrangement), and some infections (Ehrlichia, parvo) produce oligoclonal bands. Always correlate with cytology/histology and IHC (CD3 T, CD20/CD79a/Pax5 B).
5Classic organisms and their diagnostic clues: Blastomyces — thick refractile wall, BROAD-BASED budding, ~8-20 μm (pyogranulomatous). Cryptococcus — narrow-based budding, thick polysaccharide capsule (India ink negative halo, mucicarmine and Alcian blue positive). Histoplasma — intracellular in macrophages, 2-4 μm. Aspergillus — 45° dichotomous SEPTATE hyphae. Pythium/Lagenidium (oomycetes) — broad NON-septate hyphae, H&E poor, GMS positive. Coccidioides — large spherules with endospores. Actinomyces/Nocardia — branching filamentous (Nocardia modified acid-fast positive). Negri bodies — rabies, hippocampus and cerebellar Purkinje, eosinophilic intracytoplasmic. Johne's — Ziehl-Neelsen acid-fast in ileal lamina propria macrophages.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the ACVP Veterinary Pathology Certifying Examination?

The ACVP Certifying Examination is administered by the American College of Veterinary Pathologists and is the board exam for veterinary anatomic and clinical pathologists. It is delivered in two phases: Phase 1 covers general pathology mechanisms (cell injury, inflammation, neoplasia, hemodynamics, genetics, histotechniques, special stains), and Phase 2 covers specialty Anatomic Pathology (systemic gross/histology, infectious disease, parasitology, necropsy) and/or Clinical Pathology (hematology, chemistry, cytology, coagulation, urinalysis). Passing earns ACVP Diplomate status.

Who is eligible to take the ACVP exam?

Candidates must hold a DVM, VMD, or equivalent veterinary degree from an AVMA-recognized program and complete an ACVP-approved residency in anatomic pathology or clinical pathology (typically 3 years). A peer-reviewed first-author scientific publication is required before attempting Phase 2. Applicants submit letters of support from residency mentors and ACVP Diplomates, and must adhere to the ACVP Code of Ethics.

What is the format of the ACVP exam?

The ACVP Certifying Examination is a multi-day in-person examination. Phase 1 is typically 1 day of multiple-choice items on general pathology. Phase 2 spans 2-3 days and includes multiple-choice questions plus practical components — gross description of specimens, histopathology slide review, cytology slides, and (for clinical pathology candidates) clin-path case interpretation. Candidates must pass Phase 1 before attempting Phase 2.

How much does the 2026 ACVP exam cost?

Total fees for Phase 1 plus Phase 2 are approximately $1,500-$2,500 (ACVP 2026 — always verify the current schedule on the ACVP website). Candidates also pay annual ACVP Diplomate dues after passing. Cancellation and refund policies follow the ACVP schedule with decreasing refunds closer to the exam date. Retakes require re-registration and fee payment.

When is the 2026 exam administered?

The ACVP Certifying Examination is typically offered once annually, most often in late summer or early fall. Applications open many months in advance, with strict deadlines for publication submission and letters of support before Phase 2. Exact 2026 dates and registration windows are posted on the ACVP website — acvp.org/page/CertExamInfo.

How is the exam scored?

ACVP uses criterion-referenced scoring with a passing standard set by the examination committees (modified Angoff and equivalent expert-consensus methods). Pass/fail depends on performance relative to the fixed cut-score, not curved against peers. Phase 2 combines multiple-choice and practical scores. Candidates must pass Phase 1 before attempting Phase 2, and each specialty (Anatomic vs Clinical) is certified separately.

What are the highest-yield topics?

Highest-yield topics include Patnaik and Kiupel mast cell tumor grading with c-KIT/CD117 IHC pattern, PARR PCR for lymphoid clonality (IgH B-cell vs TCR gamma T-cell), IHC lymphoid panel (CD3/CD20/CD79a/Pax5/MUM1), Heinz bodies and acetaminophen toxicity in cats, spherocytes and slide agglutination in IMHA, FIP coronavirus spike 3c mutation, classic fungi (broad-based budding Blastomyces, India ink Cryptococcus, 45° septate Aspergillus), Howell-Jolly bodies and splenic dysfunction, Na:K <27 in Addison's, anticoagulant rodenticide prolonging PT first, and BRAF V595E in canine urothelial carcinoma.

How should I study for this exam?

Use the 3 years of residency to build a deep reading list (Zachary Pathologic Basis of Veterinary Disease, Maxie Jubb Kennedy and Palmer, Thrall/Weiser/Allison/Campbell for clin-path, Raskin and Meyer cytology, Valli lymphoma). Attend Davis-Thompson seminars and AFIP Wednesday Slide Conference cases weekly. Compile organ-system lesion sets and IHC/special stain panels. In the final 6-12 months, drill mock slides (gross, histo, cyto), mock clin-path cases, and multiple-choice question banks. Complete 2-3 timed full-length practice exams and practice timed gross descriptions aloud.