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Historically challenging; ACVAA publishes annual statistics with first-time pass rates varying by year and component Pass Rate
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A dog with compensated mitral valve disease presenting for dental prophylaxis is best classified as which ASA physical status?

A
B
C
D
to track
2026 Statistics

Key Facts: ACVAA Exam

100

Free Practice Questions

Covering all ACVAA blueprint content areas

3 yr

Residency Requirement

ACVAA-approved minimum 3-year anesthesia residency

~1.3%

Isoflurane MAC (Dog)

Core inhalant anesthetic potency value

~$1,500-$2,500

2026 Exam Fee

ACVAA Certifying Examination (verify current schedule)

100-120

CPR Compressions/min

RECOVER basic life support guidelines

≥0.9

TOF Ratio (Extubation)

Target train-of-four ratio for safe neuromuscular recovery

The ACVAA Certifying Examination is a multi-day written, practical, and oral examination administered by the American College of Veterinary Anesthesia and Analgesia for Diplomate certification. Content spans monitoring (~12%), sedatives/opioids (~10%), inhalants (~10%), species-specific (~10%), pain management (~10%), regional/local (~8%), induction agents (~8%), complications (~8%), pre-anesthetic assessment (~8%), ventilation (~6%), fluids (~5%), emergency/CPR (~4%), cardiac (~3%), and neuromuscular blockade (~2%). Fee is approximately $1,500-$2,500; requires an ACVAA-approved 3-year residency and a peer-reviewed publication.

Sample ACVAA Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your ACVAA exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A dog with compensated mitral valve disease presenting for dental prophylaxis is best classified as which ASA physical status?
A.ASA I
B.ASA II
C.ASA III
D.ASA V
Explanation: ASA III = severe systemic disease that limits activity but is not incapacitating. Compensated (but clinically significant) cardiac disease such as MMVD with cardiomegaly fits ASA III. ASA I is healthy, ASA II is mild systemic disease without functional limitation, ASA IV is incapacitating/life-threatening, ASA V is moribund with <24 h expected survival without surgery.
2What is the recommended pre-anesthetic fasting time for solid food versus water in an adult healthy dog?
A.24 h food, 12 h water
B.8-12 h food, 2-4 h water
C.No fasting required
D.4 h food, no water restriction
Explanation: Current ACVAA-aligned recommendations for healthy adult dogs and cats are 6-12 h for solid food (commonly 8-12 h) and 2-4 h water withholding. Longer fasts increase gastric acidity and regurgitation risk; shorter water fasts reduce dehydration without increasing aspiration risk.
3Which minimum pre-anesthetic laboratory panel is most appropriate for a geriatric (>8 y) dog undergoing mass removal?
A.No labs needed if physical exam is normal
B.PCV/TS only
C.CBC, chemistry, urinalysis ± coagulation/thyroid as indicated
D.Full cardiac MRI
Explanation: Geriatric patients should have CBC, serum chemistry and urinalysis at minimum; coagulation panel and thyroid testing are added when clinically indicated (e.g., liver disease, alopecia, breed predisposition). These detect anemia, renal, hepatic and endocrine disease that alter drug handling and risk.
4In a stable patient, which finding on pre-op ECG most strongly warrants delay and cardiology work-up before elective anesthesia?
A.Sinus arrhythmia in a dog
B.Occasional sinus pause responsive to atropine
C.Frequent wide-complex ventricular tachycardia at 220 bpm
D.First-degree AV block
Explanation: Sustained or frequent ventricular tachycardia (>180-220 bpm) significantly increases anesthetic risk and requires cardiac work-up and antiarrhythmic therapy (e.g., lidocaine) before elective anesthesia. Sinus arrhythmia, vagally mediated sinus pauses and 1st-degree AVB are generally benign in dogs.
5Which systolic blood pressure measured by Doppler in a dog presenting for surgery should prompt further work-up before anesthesia?
A.110 mmHg
B.130 mmHg
C.195 mmHg
D.150 mmHg
Explanation: Systolic BP persistently >180 mmHg is consistent with systemic hypertension (e.g., renal disease, hyperadrenocorticism, pheochromocytoma) and should be investigated and controlled before anesthesia to reduce risk of intraoperative hypertensive crisis and end-organ injury. 110-150 mmHg is normal.
6A coagulation panel (PT/aPTT, buccal mucosal bleeding time) is MOST strongly indicated before anesthesia in which patient?
A.Healthy adult dog for elective neuter
B.Doberman Pinscher scheduled for splenectomy
C.Young cat for dental scaling
D.Adult Labrador for mass removal with normal exam
Explanation: Dobermans have a high prevalence of von Willebrand disease, and splenectomy carries high bleeding risk. Pre-op coagulation testing (including BMBT ± vWF antigen) is strongly indicated. Routine coag panels are not required in healthy young animals with no bleeding history.
7A dog presents with history of anaphylaxis to cefazolin. Which component of the pre-anesthetic plan is most important to change?
A.Withhold the perioperative cephalosporin and select an alternative class
B.Administer the cefazolin more slowly
C.Premedicate with additional acepromazine
D.Give diphenhydramine and proceed with cefazolin
Explanation: A true anaphylactic reaction is an absolute contraindication to re-exposure. The cephalosporin should be withheld and an alternative antimicrobial class (e.g., clindamycin) chosen. Antihistamine pre-treatment does not reliably prevent anaphylaxis.
8A cat with azotemic CKD (IRIS stage 3) requires anesthesia for a dental. Which peri-anesthetic goal most reduces risk?
A.Aggressive NSAID analgesia
B.Fluid restriction to avoid volume overload
C.Maintain renal perfusion with normotension, judicious IV crystalloids, and avoid NSAIDs
D.Omit pre-oxygenation
Explanation: In CKD cats, hypotension further reduces GFR and worsens azotemia. Maintain MAP >70 mmHg, use IV crystalloids at conservative intra-op rates (3 mL/kg/h), avoid nephrotoxic NSAIDs, and provide multimodal opioid + local analgesia. Fluids support, not restrict, renal perfusion.
9Acepromazine is best AVOIDED in which breed due to reported adverse effects?
A.Labrador Retriever
B.Boxer (risk of hypotension/bradycardia/syncope)
C.Beagle
D.Domestic shorthair cat
Explanation: Boxers are reported to have exaggerated responses to acepromazine, including profound hypotension, bradycardia and collapse/syncope ("Boxer aorta" sensitivity). Acepromazine is usually given at reduced doses or avoided. It also lowers seizure threshold historically (controversial) and has no reversal agent.
10Epinephrine should NOT be used to treat acepromazine-induced hypotension because:
A.Epinephrine is inactivated by phenothiazines
B.Alpha-1 blockade by acepromazine unmasks beta-2 vasodilation causing paradoxical worsening of hypotension ('epinephrine reversal')
C.It will cause pulmonary edema
D.It interferes with platelet function
Explanation: Acepromazine blocks α1-adrenergic receptors. Epinephrine then acts mainly on β2-receptors causing vasodilation and worsening hypotension — classic 'epinephrine reversal.' IV fluids and a pure α1-agonist (phenylephrine, norepinephrine) are preferred.

About the ACVAA Exam

The ACVAA Certifying Examination validates advanced knowledge and clinical judgment for Diplomate status in veterinary anesthesia and analgesia. Content spans monitoring (multiparameter, capnography, ABG, train-of-four), sedatives and opioids (alpha-2 agonists, mu-opioid agonists, buprenorphine), inhalant anesthetics (MAC values — isoflurane 1.3% dog/1.6% cat, sevoflurane 2.4%/2.6%; blood/gas solubility; Compound A), induction agents (propofol, alfaxalone, ketamine, etomidate), local anesthetic pharmacology and toxicity, ultrasound- and nerve-stimulator-guided regional blocks (brachial plexus, RUMM, TAP, sciatic/femoral, epidural), species-specific anesthesia (dog, cat, equine, ruminant, exotic, avian, reptile, zoo/wildlife), pain management (multimodal, NSAIDs COX-1/COX-2, monoclonal antibodies — lokivetmab Librela and frunevetmab Solensia anti-NGF, validated pain scales — Colorado State Acute Pain Scale, feline grimace scale), pre-anesthetic assessment (ASA I-V, breed-specific — MDR1/ABCB1), complications (hypotension, hypoxemia, MH), ventilation and fluid therapy, RECOVER CPR guidelines, cardiac anesthesia, and neuromuscular blockade (atracurium, rocuronium, sugammadex reversal). Requires DVM plus an ACVAA-approved 3-year residency and a peer-reviewed publication.

Questions

100 scored questions

Time Limit

Multi-day ACVAA examination (written, practical, and oral components)

Passing Score

Criterion-referenced passing standard set by ACVAA using modified Angoff methodology

Exam Fee

~$1,500-$2,500 Certifying Examination fee (ACVAA 2026 — verify current schedule) (American College of Veterinary Anesthesia and Analgesia (ACVAA))

ACVAA Exam Content Outline

~12%

Monitoring

Multiparameter monitoring — pulse oximetry (SpO2), capnography (EtCO2 waveform — rebreathing, obstruction, decreased cardiac output), ECG arrhythmia recognition (VPCs, AV block, atrial fibrillation, ventricular tachycardia), direct (arterial catheter) and indirect (oscillometric, Doppler) blood pressure, temperature, BIS/entropy depth monitors, neuromuscular monitoring (train-of-four, double-burst, post-tetanic count — ulnar/peroneal/facial nerve stimulation), arterial blood gas interpretation (pH, PaO2, PaCO2, HCO3, base excess, A-a gradient), anesthetic depth assessment.

~10%

Sedatives, Tranquilizers & Opioids

Alpha-2 agonists (dexmedetomidine 1-5 µg/kg IV/IM, medetomidine, xylazine, detomidine, romifidine; reversal — atipamezole, yohimbine), phenothiazines (acepromazine — alpha-1 blockade causing vasodilation and hypotension; boxer sensitivity), benzodiazepines (midazolam, diazepam; flumazenil reversal), full mu-opioid agonists (hydromorphone, methadone, morphine, fentanyl, oxymorphone — histamine release with morphine), partial agonists (buprenorphine — ceiling effect, high receptor affinity, long duration in cats), agonist-antagonists (butorphanol, nalbuphine), tramadol limitations in dogs (poor M1 metabolism), naloxone reversal.

~10%

Inhalant Anesthetics

Minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) — isoflurane ~1.3% dog / ~1.6% cat; sevoflurane ~2.4% dog / ~2.6% cat; desflurane ~7.2% dog / ~9.8% cat. Blood/gas solubility (desflurane 0.42 < sevoflurane 0.65 < isoflurane 1.4) — lower solubility means faster onset/recovery. MAC-altering factors (age, hypothermia, pregnancy, opioids, alpha-2 reduce MAC; hyperthermia, chronic stimulants increase). Vapor pressure and variable-bypass vs desflurane heated vaporizer, circle rebreathing vs non-rebreathing (Mapleson D/F, Bain) systems, soda lime CO2 absorption, Compound A with sevoflurane and low fresh gas flow.

~10%

Species-Specific Anesthesia

Small animal (cat-specific dysphoria with opioids, morphine vomiting and histamine release), equine (recovery myopathy/neuropathy prevention, GGX/guaifenesin-ketamine-xylazine triple drip, hypoxemia from V/Q mismatch in lateral recumbency, V/Q gradient), ruminants (regurgitation and bloat risk, local-heavy protocols, paravertebral and inverted-L blocks for laparotomy), camelids, swine (malignant hyperthermia with ryanodine receptor RYR1 mutation, stress cardiomyopathy), rabbits (obligate nasal breathers, difficult glottic visualization, high atropinesterase), avian (air sac cannulation, high isoflurane sensitivity), reptiles (temperature-dependent pharmacokinetics, IPPV for prolonged apnea), zoo and wildlife (BAM — butorphanol/azaperone/medetomidine; TKX; thiafentanil for ungulate capture).

~10%

Pain Management & Analgesia

Multimodal analgesia, NSAIDs (carprofen, meloxicam, robenacoxib, deracoxib; grapiprant — EP4 prostaglandin receptor antagonist; renal and GI adverse effects — avoid in dehydration or renal disease), opioids (systemic, epidural, CRI), NMDA antagonists (ketamine CRI 2-10 µg/kg/min for central sensitization, amantadine), alpha-2 CRIs (dexmedetomidine), gabapentinoids, tricyclic antidepressants, monoclonal antibodies — lokivetmab (Librela, anti-NGF) for canine osteoarthritis and frunevetmab (Solensia, anti-NGF) for feline OA pain, validated pain scales (Colorado State University Acute Pain Scale, Glasgow Composite Measure Pain Scale, UNESP-Botucatu feline scale, feline grimace scale), cancer and chronic pain.

~8%

Regional & Local Anesthesia

Ultrasound- and nerve-stimulator-guided peripheral nerve blocks (brachial plexus for forelimb, RUMM — radial/ulnar/median/musculocutaneous at distal humerus, sciatic/femoral/saphenous for pelvic limb, transversus abdominis plane — TAP, intercostal, paravertebral), neuraxial anesthesia (lumbosacral epidural in dogs with loss-of-resistance technique, caudal epidural in horses and cattle), retrobulbar block for enucleation, dental blocks (infraorbital, maxillary, middle mental, inferior alveolar/mandibular), local infiltration (lidocaine max ~10 mg/kg dog, ~5 mg/kg cat; bupivacaine 2 mg/kg), intratesticular and intraperitoneal for castration/OVH, liposomal bupivacaine (Nocita) extended-release.

~8%

Induction Agents & TIVA

Propofol (rapid onset and offset, GABAergic; feline Heinz-body formation with repeated dosing; avoid in egg/soy-allergic patients), alfaxalone (neuroactive steroid GABA modulator — cardiovascular-sparing induction for cats, dogs, rabbits, and small mammals; IM-capable), ketamine (NMDA antagonist — dissociative anesthesia, sympathomimetic with increased HR/BP and cardiac output; combined with benzodiazepine or alpha-2 to smooth induction), etomidate (excellent cardiovascular stability — valuable for cardiac patients; adrenocortical suppression, hemolysis from propylene glycol vehicle), thiopental historical barbiturate use, TIVA (propofol or alfaxalone CRI ± ketamine/fentanyl), target-controlled infusion.

~8%

Complications & Crisis Management

Hypotension (MAP <60 mmHg — most common complication; causes include inhalant-induced vasodilation, hypovolemia, depressed contractility; treat with fluid bolus, reduce inhalant, ephedrine 0.05-0.1 mg/kg, dopamine 5-10 µg/kg/min, norepinephrine for vasodilatory shock, dobutamine for contractility), hypoxemia (SpO2 <95% — V/Q mismatch, hypoventilation, diffusion impairment, R-to-L shunt, low FiO2), hypercapnia (EtCO2 >45), hypothermia (shivering, prolonged recovery), arrhythmias (lidocaine 2 mg/kg for VPC/VT in dogs — use with caution in cats), regurgitation and aspiration, malignant hyperthermia (dantrolene 2.5 mg/kg), anaphylaxis (epinephrine), drug errors.

~8%

Pre-Anesthetic Assessment & Planning

ASA physical status classification (I — healthy; II — mild systemic disease; III — severe systemic disease; IV — constant threat to life; V — moribund, not expected to survive without surgery; E — emergency modifier), history and physical exam, breed-specific concerns (brachycephalic airway — BOAS; Doberman von Willebrand; sighthound prolonged thiopental recovery; boxer acepromazine sensitivity with vasovagal bradycardia; collies/Australian shepherds and MDR1/ABCB1 mutation affecting ivermectin, loperamide, acepromazine, butorphanol clearance), minimum database (CBC, chemistry, UA), fasting guidelines, premedication selection, geriatric/pediatric/obese/pregnant considerations, comorbid cardiac (MMVD, HCM, DCM), renal, hepatic, endocrine (diabetes, HAC, hyperthyroidism) disease.

~6%

Ventilation & Respiratory Support

Controlled vs assisted ventilation (IPPV intermittent positive-pressure ventilation, pressure-controlled PCV 10-15 cmH2O, volume-controlled VCV 10-15 mL/kg, SIMV synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation), tidal volume and respiratory rate settings (10-12 breaths per minute in most species), positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) for atelectasis, recruitment maneuvers, end-tidal CO2 monitoring (35-45 mmHg target), one-lung ventilation for thoracic surgery, airway management (endotracheal intubation with Murphy-eye tube, cuff pressure 20-25 cmH2O), laryngeal mask airway, tracheostomy, pulmonary mechanics.

~5%

Fluid Therapy

Crystalloids (lactated Ringer's, Plasma-Lyte 148, Normosol-R, 0.9% saline), colloids (hydroxyethyl starch Vetstarch — AKI concerns especially in cats and septic patients; albumin), hypertonic saline 7.5% for rapid volume expansion, blood products (packed RBC, fresh whole blood, FFP, cryoprecipitate), intraoperative rates (historic 10 mL/kg/hr dog and 5 mL/kg/hr cat now favoring goal-directed lower rates of 3-5 mL/kg/hr to avoid interstitial edema), shock resuscitation (shock bolus 10-20 mL/kg titrated), acid-base disturbances (metabolic acidosis, respiratory acidosis).

~4%

Emergency & CPR (RECOVER)

RECOVER (Reassessment Campaign on Veterinary Resuscitation) guidelines — BLS: 100-120 compressions per minute, depth 1/3 to 1/2 chest width, lateral recumbency for most dogs and cats (dorsal for barrel-chested), 2-minute uninterrupted cycles, IPPV 10 breaths per minute with tidal volume ~10 mL/kg. ALS: epinephrine low-dose 0.01 mg/kg IV q3-5 min, atropine 0.04 mg/kg for vagal/asystole, vasopressin 0.8 U/kg as alternative, ECG rhythm diagnosis (asystole, PEA, VF/pulseless VT — defibrillation 4-6 J/kg monophasic, 2-4 J/kg biphasic), EtCO2 >15 mmHg suggests effective chest compressions and helps identify ROSC, post-cardiac-arrest care (oxygen, neuroprotection).

~3%

Cardiac & High-Risk Patient Anesthesia

Myxomatous mitral valve disease (MMVD — avoid tachycardia and bradycardia; support preload and afterload), hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM — avoid tachycardia and hypovolemia; maintain preload and SVR; avoid inotropes that worsen outflow obstruction), dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM — support contractility with dobutamine or pimobendan; avoid myocardial depressants; diastolic failure support), patent ductus arteriosus, pericardial effusion with tamponade (pericardiocentesis before induction), septic shock, major trauma, intracranial disease (avoid hypercapnia to prevent cerebral vasodilation and raised ICP; maintain CPP = MAP − ICP).

~2%

Neuromuscular Blockade

Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers — atracurium (Hofmann elimination — organ-independent breakdown; histamine release), cisatracurium (stereoisomer — less histamine release), vecuronium, rocuronium (rapid onset). Depolarizing — succinylcholine (rare veterinary use; MH trigger). Train-of-four (TOF) monitoring at ulnar, peroneal, or facial nerve with 4 supramaximal stimuli at 2 Hz over 2 seconds; target TOF ratio ≥0.9 for safe extubation. Reversal: neostigmine 0.02-0.04 mg/kg with glycopyrrolate or atropine to block muscarinic effects; sugammadex 2-16 mg/kg for selective encapsulation of rocuronium and vecuronium, providing rapid and reliable reversal.

How to Pass the ACVAA Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Criterion-referenced passing standard set by ACVAA using modified Angoff methodology
  • Exam length: 100 questions
  • Time limit: Multi-day ACVAA examination (written, practical, and oral components)
  • Exam fee: ~$1,500-$2,500 Certifying Examination fee (ACVAA 2026 — verify current schedule)

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

ACVAA Study Tips from Top Performers

1Memorize MAC values and blood/gas solubility: isoflurane MAC ~1.3% dog / ~1.6% cat (blood/gas 1.4); sevoflurane ~2.4% / ~2.6% (blood/gas 0.65); desflurane ~7.2% / ~9.8% (blood/gas 0.42). Lower blood/gas solubility means faster wash-in and wash-out. MAC is reduced by age, hypothermia, pregnancy, opioids, alpha-2 agonists, lidocaine CRI, ketamine CRI, and N2O.
2RECOVER CPR pearls: start compressions 100-120/min at 1/3-1/2 chest width, 2-minute uninterrupted cycles, IPPV 10 breaths/min at ~10 mL/kg. Low-dose epinephrine 0.01 mg/kg IV q3-5 min (high-dose 0.1 mg/kg only after prolonged arrest); atropine 0.04 mg/kg for vagal/asystole; vasopressin 0.8 U/kg as alternative to epi. Defibrillate VF/pulseless VT at 2-4 J/kg biphasic or 4-6 J/kg monophasic. EtCO2 >15 mmHg indicates effective CPR; sudden rise suggests ROSC.
3Neuromuscular blockade — train-of-four (TOF): 4 supramaximal stimuli at 2 Hz; target TOF ratio ≥0.9 before extubation. Atracurium undergoes Hofmann elimination (organ-independent, useful in renal/hepatic disease) but may release histamine. Cisatracurium minimizes histamine release. Sugammadex (2-4 mg/kg reversal at T2, 4 mg/kg at 1-2 PTC, 16 mg/kg for immediate reversal of rocuronium) selectively encapsulates rocuronium and vecuronium, bypassing anticholinesterase reversal. Neostigmine 0.02-0.04 mg/kg with glycopyrrolate or atropine for non-aminosteroid NMBs.
4Breed-specific pharmacology: collies and Australian shepherds with MDR1/ABCB1 mutation have impaired P-glycoprotein drug efflux — sensitive to ivermectin, loperamide, acepromazine, butorphanol, and vincristine. Doberman pinschers have high von Willebrand prevalence — check factor levels. Sighthounds have prolonged thiopental/propofol recovery due to low body fat and altered metabolism. Boxers are sensitive to acepromazine (vasovagal bradycardia/syncope). Brachycephalic breeds (English bulldog, pug) require airway management planning for BOAS and regurgitation.
5Anti-NGF monoclonal antibodies for chronic pain: lokivetmab (Librela) for canine osteoarthritis and frunevetmab (Solensia) for feline OA — monthly subcutaneous injection, species-specific caninized/felinized antibodies targeting nerve growth factor. Generally well-tolerated; spare GI and renal side effects of chronic NSAIDs. Know validated pain scales: Colorado State University Acute Pain Scale (0-4), Glasgow Composite Measure Pain Scale (CMPS-SF) for dogs, UNESP-Botucatu multidimensional scale and feline grimace scale (FGS) for cats.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the ACVAA Certifying Examination?

The ACVAA Certifying Examination is administered by the American College of Veterinary Anesthesia and Analgesia and leads to Diplomate status (board certification) in veterinary anesthesia and analgesia. It is a multi-component examination with written multiple-choice, practical, and oral sections covering pharmacology, monitoring, regional anesthesia, pain management, species-specific anesthesia, complications, CPR (RECOVER), and cardiac anesthesia.

Who is eligible to take the ACVAA exam?

Candidates must hold a DVM, VMD, or equivalent veterinary degree, complete an ACVAA-approved residency training program of at least 3 years in veterinary anesthesia and analgesia under the supervision of ACVAA Diplomates, and produce at least one first-author peer-reviewed publication acceptable to the Credentials Committee. A detailed case log, letters of recommendation, and adherence to the ACVAA Code of Ethics are also required.

What is the format of the ACVAA exam?

The ACVAA Certifying Examination is a multi-day examination administered annually by the College. It typically includes a written multiple-choice component, a practical component involving case management and simulation, and an oral component with Diplomate examiners. Content is blueprinted to the ACVAA content outline covering monitoring, pharmacology, regional anesthesia, pain, species-specific protocols, complications, and CPR.

How much does the 2026 ACVAA exam cost?

The 2026 ACVAA Certifying Examination fee is approximately $1,500-$2,500 — always verify current fees on the ACVAA website. Candidates should also budget for credentials review fees, travel to the examination site, study materials, and ACVAA membership dues following certification. Refund and cancellation policies follow the ACVAA schedule.

When is the 2026 exam administered?

The ACVAA Certifying Examination is typically offered once annually. Applications generally open months in advance with deadlines for credentials submission and case logs. Exact 2026 dates, application deadlines, and venues are posted on the ACVAA website and communicated to candidates by the Credentials Committee.

How is the exam scored?

The ACVAA uses criterion-referenced scoring with passing standards set by subject-matter experts using the modified Angoff method. A candidate's pass/fail result depends on performance relative to a fixed cut-score on each component, not against other candidates. Candidates typically must pass all components (written, practical, and oral) to achieve Diplomate status.

What are the highest-yield topics?

Highest-yield topics include MAC values (isoflurane 1.3% dog/1.6% cat, sevoflurane 2.4%/2.6%) and blood/gas solubility, alpha-2 agonist dosing and reversal (dexmedetomidine 1-5 µg/kg, atipamezole), opioid pharmacology (mu agonists, buprenorphine), alfaxalone vs propofol induction, regional and dental blocks, RECOVER CPR (compressions 100-120/min, epinephrine 0.01 mg/kg, defibrillation 2-6 J/kg), train-of-four monitoring and sugammadex reversal, MDR1/ABCB1 drug sensitivity, ASA physical status, and anti-NGF monoclonal antibodies (lokivetmab, frunevetmab).

How should I study for this exam?

Use a structured 12-24 month plan layered on residency. Work through ACVAA content areas systematically: pharmacology and physiology first, then monitoring, regional anesthesia, species-specific protocols, pain management, complications, and RECOVER CPR. Read core texts (Grimm's Veterinary Anesthesia and Analgesia — Lumb and Jones 5th ed; Muir's Handbook of Veterinary Anesthesia), follow Veterinary Anaesthesia and Analgesia journal, use MCQ practice banks, and participate in ACVAA-recognized review courses and mock oral sessions.