100+ Free ABPath Blood Banking/Transfusion Medicine Practice Questions

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Question 1

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A 72-year-old woman with coronary artery disease has a hemoglobin of 7.8 g/dL after GI bleeding, now stable. Per AABB 2023 restrictive transfusion guidelines, the appropriate transfusion threshold for this hemodynamically stable hospitalized patient is:

Transfuse all patients with Hb <10 g/dL

Transfuse when Hb <7 g/dL for hemodynamically stable non-cardiac surgery adults; <7.5-8 g/dL for cardiac surgery or symptomatic coronary disease

Transfuse only after Hb <5 g/dL

No transfusion ever needed

to track

2026 Statistics

Key Facts: ABPath Blood Banking/Transfusion Medicine Exam

280

Total Questions

Combined Written/Practical, 2026 blueprint

~6h 22m

Total Exam Time

One-day computer-based via Pearson VUE

$2,100

Subspecialty Exam Fee (2026)

Includes $200 non-refundable admin fee

91%

2025 First-Time Pass Rate

39/43 ABPath BB/TM exam takers passed

1 year

ACGME Fellowship Required

Post AP/CP or CP primary certification

Sept 8-28

2026 Exam Window

Pearson VUE Professional Testing Centers

The ABPath BB/TM exam tests 280 one-best-answer questions over ~6.4 hours in one day. The 2026 blueprint (effective 2026) allocates Clinical Practice 14%, HPC Transplantation 11%, RBCs/RBC Components 10%, Hazards (Specific Adverse Events) 10%, Apheresis 8%, Blood Donors/Collection 7%, Surgery Patients 7%, Obstetric/Pediatric 7%, Plasma Components 6%, Management/Quality/Legal 6%, Platelet Components 6%, Infectious Hazards 4%, Management/Informatics-General 2%, Histocompatibility/Tissue Banking 1%, Biovigilance 1%. Fee: $2,100. Eligibility requires ACGME-accredited 1-year BB/TM fellowship and AP/CP or CP primary certification. Exam September 8-28, 2026.

Sample ABPath Blood Banking/Transfusion Medicine Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your ABPath Blood Banking/Transfusion Medicine exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 72-year-old woman with coronary artery disease has a hemoglobin of 7.8 g/dL after GI bleeding, now stable. Per AABB 2023 restrictive transfusion guidelines, the appropriate transfusion threshold for this hemodynamically stable hospitalized patient is:

A.Transfuse all patients with Hb <10 g/dL

B.Transfuse when Hb <7 g/dL for hemodynamically stable non-cardiac surgery adults; <7.5-8 g/dL for cardiac surgery or symptomatic coronary disease

C.Transfuse only after Hb <5 g/dL

D.No transfusion ever needed

Explanation: AABB 2023 restrictive transfusion guidelines: Hb <7 g/dL for hemodynamically stable adults (including critical care), <7.5 g/dL for cardiac surgery patients (TRICS-III), <8 g/dL for orthopedic surgery and patients with pre-existing cardiovascular disease. A restrictive approach reduces exposure and TRALI/TACO without worsening outcomes.

2A type and screen reveals a positive antibody screen. Panel work-up identifies anti-Jka. Which phenotyping strategy minimizes DHTR risk in a chronically transfused patient?

A.ABO/Rh matching only

B.Phenotype-matched or genotype-matched units for clinically significant antigens including Rh (C/c/E/e), Kell, Duffy (Fya/Fyb), Kidd (Jka/Jkb), MNS (S/s)

C.No antigen matching needed

D.Only crossmatch with patient serum

Explanation: Chronically transfused patients (sickle cell, thalassemia, MDS) should receive extended phenotype-matched (or molecular genotype-matched) units to prevent alloimmunization. Key antigens beyond ABO/Rh: C, c, E, e, K, Fya, Fyb, Jka, Jkb, S, s. Anti-Jka is classically anamnestic and causes DHTR. Molecular phenotyping (BeadChip arrays) is common for sickle cell donors and recipients.

3In an emergency situation where a blood type is unknown, which unit type is given?

A.O negative RBCs (uncrossmatched) and AB plasma (universal plasma donor — no anti-A or anti-B)

B.O positive only

C.Type-specific always

D.Delay transfusion

Explanation: Emergency uncrossmatched: O-negative RBCs for females of childbearing potential; O-positive RBCs acceptable for males and older females to preserve O-negative supply. Group AB plasma is universal (no anti-A or anti-B), or low-titer group A plasma per newer guidelines. Platelets are often group-specific; low-titer group O or platelet additive solutions decrease anti-A/B risks in mismatched transfusions.

4A chronically transfused sickle cell patient has developed an anti-U (U-negative). Blood procurement steps?

A.Transfuse any RBC

B.Search AABB Rare Donor Registry / American Rare Donor Program for U-negative donors; typically from donors of African descent

C.Give O-negative only

D.Cancel transfusion plans

Explanation: U-negative (S-s-U-) phenotype is rare and found almost exclusively in individuals of African descent (~1.5% of African-Americans). The American Rare Donor Program (ARDP) and international rare donor registries facilitate procurement. Anti-U is clinically significant and causes HTR and HDFN. Molecular genotyping for GYPB gene helps identify compatible donors.

5A patient with sickle cell disease in crisis receives an exchange transfusion. Goal HbS percentage after exchange is:

A.Any HbS percentage

B.<30% HbS (acute stroke, ACS) — simple transfusion to raise Hb ~10 g/dL may be sufficient for mild indications but exchange preferred for severe

C.HbS <90%

D.HbS >50%

Explanation: Sickle cell exchange transfusion (erythrocytapheresis or manual) targets HbS <30% for acute stroke, ACS, severe pain crisis not responding to simple transfusion, multi-organ failure. For stroke prevention in children (STOP/TWiTCH), chronic simple transfusion or hydroxyurea can maintain HbS <30%. Exchange avoids iron overload common with simple transfusion.

6A pre-transfusion workup reveals an auto-control positive with all panel cells positive. Which procedure identifies clinically significant underlying alloantibodies?

A.Skip testing

B.Autoadsorption (warm AIHA without recent transfusion) or allogeneic adsorption (if transfused in past 3 months) to remove autoantibody and reveal alloantibodies

C.Only serologic crossmatch

D.Elute RBCs

Explanation: With pan-reactive autoantibody, auto-adsorption (patient's own RBCs treated with ZZAP to remove coating then used to adsorb plasma autoantibody) reveals alloantibodies. If transfused in prior 3 months (donor RBCs present), use allogeneic adsorption with selected R1R1/R2R2/rr cells covering Rh and common antigens. Molecular phenotyping/genotyping supplements serology.

7Plasma from which donor is preferred to minimize TRALI risk?

A.Multiparous female donors

B.Male donors, never-pregnant females, or anti-HLA/anti-HNA-antibody-screened females — mitigation strategy implemented since 2006

C.Any donor

D.Autologous only

Explanation: TRALI mitigation (AABB/FDA): plasma and whole blood-derived platelets come predominantly from male donors, never-pregnant females, or females with negative anti-HLA/anti-HNA antibody screening. This reduced TRALI from the #1 cause of transfusion-related mortality to the #2-3 cause (now often TACO is #1).

8Prothrombin complex concentrate (4F-PCC, KCentra) contains which factors?

A.Factor VIII only

B.Factors II, VII, IX, X plus proteins C and S (non-activated, vs activated PCC aka FEIBA)

C.Factor VII only (recombinant)

D.Fibrinogen

Explanation: 4F-PCC (KCentra): factors II (prothrombin), VII, IX, X with proteins C and S — indicated for urgent warfarin reversal in major bleeding (INR-based dose 25-50 units/kg) or pre-operative reversal. Activated PCC (FEIBA) contains activated factor VII and is used for hemophilia A/B with inhibitors. 3F-PCCs lack factor VII.

9The shelf life of RBCs in additive solution AS-1 (Adsol) is:

A.21 days

B.42 days at 1-6°C

C.7 days

D.1 year frozen

Explanation: RBC units: CPD (21 days), CPDA-1 (35 days), additive solutions AS-1 (Adsol)/AS-3 (Nutricel)/AS-5 (Optisol) extend shelf life to 42 days at 1-6°C. Frozen RBCs with glycerol stored at -65°C for up to 10 years; after deglycerolization, 24 hr shelf life (or 14 days with closed system).

10Leukoreduction of blood components prevents:

A.TA-GVHD

B.Febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reactions (most), HLA alloimmunization, and CMV transmission (equivalent to CMV-seronegative for most patients)

C.Acute hemolytic transfusion reactions

D.Volume overload

Explanation: Leukoreduction (pre-storage filtration to <5 × 10⁶ WBC/unit — AABB standard): prevents febrile nonhemolytic reactions, HLA alloimmunization, and CMV transmission (leukoreduced = CMV-safe for most purposes). Does NOT prevent TA-GVHD (requires IRRADIATION) or acute hemolytic reactions. Universal leukoreduction is standard in most US blood centers.

About the ABPath Blood Banking/Transfusion Medicine Exam

The ABPath Blood Banking/Transfusion Medicine (BB/TM) subspecialty examination certifies pathologists who have completed a 1-year ACGME-accredited BB/TM fellowship after AP/CP or CP primary certification. It is a one-day computer-based exam at Pearson VUE testing centers with 280 one-best-answer multiple-choice questions in a combined Written/Practical format. Content spans clinical transfusion practice, blood components (RBCs, platelets, plasma, cryoprecipitate, derivatives), donor management and collection, apheresis (TPE, LDL, ECP, leukocytapheresis, HPC collection), hazards of transfusion (reactions, infectious risks), surgical/OB/pediatric transfusion, hematopoietic progenitor cell transplantation (mobilization, cryopreservation, engraftment, GVHD, CAR-T), histocompatibility/tissue banking, biovigilance, and management/quality/legal/regulatory issues.

Questions

280 scored questions

Time Limit

~6 hours 22 minutes (combined Written/Practical)

Passing Score

Criterion-referenced scaled standard (modified Angoff). Candidates must pass the single administration.

Exam Fee

$2,100 (ABPath 2026) (American Board of Pathology (ABPath) — administered via Pearson VUE)

ABPath Blood Banking/Transfusion Medicine Exam Content Outline

14%

Clinical Practice

Pre-transfusion testing (type and screen, antibody ID, IAT), crossmatch rules (electronic vs full serologic AHG), extended phenotype matching for chronically transfused (sickle cell, thalassemia), autoadsorption and allogeneic adsorption for pan-reactive autoantibodies, emergency uncrossmatched release, AABB 2023 restrictive transfusion thresholds (Hb <7 stable, <7.5 cardiac surg, <8 ortho/CVD), rare donor registries (ARDP), cold agglutinin disease workup (DAT C3+, titer >64).

11%

HPC Transplantation

Mobilization (G-CSF ± plerixafor), collection (CD34 ≥2×10⁶/kg auto, ≥4-5 allo), cryopreservation (10% DMSO, controlled-rate -1°C/min, -196°C LN vapor), post-thaw ISHAGE viability, ABO mismatch major/minor/bidirectional management, HLA typing 10/10 MUD by NGS, cord blood (4/6-5/6 matching, lower cell dose), engraftment monitoring (ANC >500, STR chimerism), acute vs chronic GVHD (MAGIC criteria, steroids first-line, ruxolitinib refractory, ECP), myeloablative vs reduced-intensity conditioning, CAR-T (tisagenlecleucel, axi-cel, ide-cel; CRS ASTCT grading, tocilizumab; ICANS; PTLD with EBV and rituximab).

10%

RBCs and RBC Components

Storage solutions (CPD 21d, CPDA-1 35d, AS-1/3/5 42d at 1-6°C), frozen-deglycerolized (10 yr at -65°C; 24 hr after deglycerolization), leukoreduction (<5×10⁶ WBC; prevents FNHTR, HLA alloimmunization, CMV transmission — 'CMV-safe'), irradiation (25 Gy for TA-GVHD prevention — required for HPC, Hodgkin, fludarabine, intrauterine/neonatal, directed donor from blood relative; 28-day outdate), washed (IgA-deficiency, severe allergic), RBC unit (~300 mL, Hct 55-65%, 1 unit = ~1 g/dL Hb rise), storage lesion (2,3-BPG, K+, pH, ATP).

10%

Hazards of Transfusion: Specific Adverse Events

AHTR (clerical error, ABO IgM, intravascular hemolysis, DIC, hemoglobinuria — STOP/clerical check/DAT/cultures), DHTR (3-14 d, anamnestic Kidd/Rh/Duffy), TRALI (anti-HLA/HNA from multiparous donor, within 6 hr, PaO2/FiO2 ≤300, bilateral infiltrates), TACO (cardiogenic edema, hypertension, BNP elevated, within 12 hr), FNHTR (temp rise ≥1°C), allergic urticarial (may resume same unit) vs anaphylactic (IgA deficiency — stop permanently, epinephrine), TA-GVHD (rash+diarrhea+hepatitis+pancytopenia ~1-6 wk, fatal — prevent with irradiation), PTP (HPA-1a, 5-10 d, IVIG), septic (platelets, S. epidermidis/Serratia/Yersinia RBCs), hemosiderosis (deferasirox), hypothermia, citrate toxicity.

Apheresis

ASFA categories I-IV (I accepted first-line — TTP, GBS, MG crisis, anti-GBM, hyperviscosity; II adjunctive; III individualized; IV ineffective/harmful). TPE replacement fluid (plasma for TTP, albumin usually for others), ACD-A citrate anticoagulant → calcium supplementation, LDL-apheresis for HoFH/severe FH, ECP for CTCL and GVHD (ex-vivo 8-MOP + UVA), leukocytapheresis for leukostasis (AML >50-100k blasts), HPC-A collection with G-CSF ± plerixafor, therapeutic phlebotomy for hemochromatosis (ferritin <50) and polycythemia vera (Hct <45%), solid organ transplant desensitization.

Blood Donors and Blood Collection

FDA Hb requirements (12.5 F / 13.0 M), donation intervals (whole blood 56 d, source plasma 28 d, apheresis platelets 7 d), anticoagulant solutions (CPD, CPDA-1, additive), FDA-mandated testing (HIV ab+NAT, HBsAg+anti-HBc+HBV NAT, HCV ab+NAT, syphilis, HTLV-I/II, WNV NAT, Chagas one-time screen, Zika, Babesia in 17 endemic states/DC), 2023 gender-inclusive HIV risk assessment (3-month deferral for new/multiple partners), 2022 malaria deferral revision (3 months short travel), donor reactions (vasovagal, hematoma, iron deficiency especially frequent female donors).

Surgery Patients

Massive transfusion protocol with 1:1:1 ratio (PROPPR 2015), TXA 1 g IV within 3 hr (CRASH-2 trauma, WOMAN PPH), patient blood management 3 pillars (optimize RBC mass, minimize blood loss, tolerate anemia), cell salvage (contraindications/cautions for bacteria/malignancy/amniotic fluid — leukoreduction filter allows use), acute normovolemic hemodilution, viscoelastic testing (TEG/ROTEM — R→FFP, K/CFT→fibrinogen, MA/MCF→platelets, LY30→TXA), Jehovah's Witnesses (individualized product list), intraoperative AHTR under GA recognition (unexplained bleeding, hypotension, hemoglobinuria).

Obstetric and Pediatric Patients

RhIG 300 μg (28 wk + postpartum; covers 30 mL whole blood / 15 mL fetal RBCs), Kleihauer-Betke for large FMH (or flow cytometry anti-HbF), cell-free fetal DNA for fetal D determination, critical titer (anti-D 16, anti-K 8), MCA-PSV >1.5 MoM → fetal anemia workup, intrauterine transfusion (irradiated, fresh <7d, HbS-, Hct 75-80%, ABO-compat both ways, crossmatched against maternal plasma), AAP 2022 hyperbilirubinemia guidelines with neurotoxicity risk factors, double-volume exchange 160 mL/kg, NAIT HPA-1a management (IVIG, washed maternal platelets, maternal IVIG antenatally), ABO HDN (O mother, A/B infant — typically mild), neonatal aliquots, PPH with fibrinogen >200 mg/dL target.

Plasma Components and Derivatives

FFP (10-15 mL/kg, -18°C for 1 yr), PF24, thawed plasma (5 days 1-6°C with FV/FVIII decline), cryoprecipitate (≥150 mg fibrinogen, ≥80 IU FVIII, vWF, FXIII, fibronectin per unit; 10-unit pool raises fibrinogen ~70-100 mg/dL), SD-plasma/Octaplas (pathogen-reduced, pooled, ~500-1000 donors — TTP and select), 4F-PCC/KCentra (II, VII, IX, X + C/S — urgent warfarin reversal), FEIBA (activated PCC, hemophilia with inhibitors), rFVIIa, IVIG (PTP, NAIT, ITP, GBS, Kawasaki, CIDP), factor concentrates (rFVIII, rFIX, vWF/FVIII, fibrinogen concentrate, emicizumab for FVIII-mimicking).

Management, Quality, Legal, and Regulatory Issues

AABB Standards for Blood Banks and Transfusion Services (34th edition, ~2-yr cycle), FDA 21 CFR Parts 606 (cGMP), 610 (biologics licensing), 630 (donor eligibility), 640 (products), ISBT 128 labeling (machine-readable barcodes for donation ID, product code, ABO/Rh, expiration, facility; administered by ICCBBA), informed consent content (risks including TRALI/TACO/infection, alternatives, refusal), transfusion audits/utilization review, fatality reporting to FDA CBER within 24 hr (21 CFR 606.170) then written 7 days, Joint Commission patient blood management standards.

Platelet and Platelet Components

Apheresis platelets (≥3.0×10¹¹, ~200-400 mL, equivalent to 6 pooled WB-derived), storage 20-24°C with agitation × 5-7 d (7 with PR or bacterial testing), CCI calculation — refractoriness = CCI <7500 at 1 hr or <5000 at 10-24 hr × 2 consecutive transfusions (→ HLA/HPA workup, crossmatched or HLA-matched platelets), platelet thresholds (10k proph stable, 20k fever, 50k procedures/LP, 100k neurosurg/posterior eye), NAIT management, cold-stored platelets for trauma, contraindications (TTP, HIT — only for life-threatening bleeding).

Infectious Hazards of Transfusion

Residual post-NAT risk: HIV ~1 in 1.5-2.3M, HCV ~1 in 1-1.5M, HBV ~1 in 0.8-1M (window periods 9-11 d HIV, 7-10 d HCV). Bacterial contamination most common TTI especially platelets (room temp storage). Chagas one-time antibody screen (2007). WNV mpNAT year-round → ID-NAT during transmission. Babesia in endemic 17 states/DC (PCR/antibody). Zika RNA. CMV (leukoreduced = CMV-safe for most; seronegative for strict indications like intrauterine/immunocompromised). Prion/vCJD policy revised (UK deferrals removed 2022).

Management and Informatics (General)

BBIS (blood bank information system), electronic crossmatch rules (current T/S ≤3 d, antibody-negative history), CPOE with best-practice alerts (restrictive Hb trigger, single-unit first order), barcode positive patient ID at phlebotomy and transfusion (typenex), product traceability for lookback/recall, EHR interface, computer validation per FDA/CLIA/AABB, blood utilization management (BUM) dashboards.

Histocompatibility and Tissue Banking

HLA typing by molecular methods (NGS, SSO, SSP) at -A, -B, -C, -DRB1, -DQB1 (10/10 MUD), DPB1 increasingly assessed. Virtual crossmatch using Luminex single-antigen bead (MFI scoring). Cytotoxic (CDC) and flow crossmatch. HLA and HPA antibody screening. Tissue banking HCT/P (21 CFR 1271 FDA regulations — registration, donor eligibility, cGTP, traceability), AATB accreditation, 361 vs 351 products (minimally manipulated/homologous use vs biologics). ABO-incompatible and HLA-incompatible solid organ transplant desensitization.

Biovigilance

CDC NHSN Hemovigilance Module (voluntary adverse event reporting — patient reactions, donor complications, component quality). FDA fatality reporting within 24 hr by phone/email (21 CFR 606.170) and written report 7 days. Lookback (donor seroconversion → recipient notification and testing for prior 12-24 mo). Recall of frozen inventory, MedWatch device reporting, root cause analysis, near-miss reporting, adverse event investigation.

How to Pass the ABPath Blood Banking/Transfusion Medicine Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: Criterion-referenced scaled standard (modified Angoff). Candidates must pass the single administration.
Exam length: 280 questions
Time limit: ~6 hours 22 minutes (combined Written/Practical)
Exam fee: $2,100 (ABPath 2026)

Keys to Passing

Complete 500+ practice questions
Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
Focus on highest-weighted sections
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

ABPath Blood Banking/Transfusion Medicine Study Tips from Top Performers

1Memorize the MTP 1:1:1 ratio (PROPPR 2015) — 1 unit RBC : 1 unit FFP : 1 apheresis platelet unit (equivalent to 6 pooled WB-derived) — and know that TXA 1 g IV within 3 hours reduces death (CRASH-2, WOMAN)

2Know the TRALI vs TACO distinction: TRALI is hypotensive lung injury within 6 hr from donor anti-HLA/HNA (multiparous donors); TACO is hypertensive cardiogenic pulmonary edema within 12 hr with elevated BNP. Both are top causes of transfusion-related death

3Master AABB 2023 restrictive thresholds: Hb <7 stable adults/critical care, <7.5 cardiac surgery, <8 orthopedic/CVD — liberal thresholds have not improved outcomes and increase TRALI/TACO exposure

4Know ASFA categories by memory: Category I (first-line) = TTP (with plasma replacement), GBS, CIDP, MG myasthenic crisis, anti-GBM (Goodpasture), hyperviscosity from paraproteinemia, ABOi transplant desensitization. Category IV = ineffective/harmful

5For HPC transplantation, remember ABO major mismatch (recipient antibodies against donor — e.g., O recipient, A donor) requires RBC depletion of graft; minor mismatch (donor antibodies against recipient) requires plasma reduction; bidirectional requires both

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the ABPath Blood Banking/Transfusion Medicine subspecialty exam?

The ABPath BB/TM exam is the subspecialty certification examination for pathologists completing a 1-year ACGME-accredited Blood Banking/Transfusion Medicine fellowship after AP/CP or CP primary certification. It validates expertise in transfusion medicine practice, blood component management, donor screening, apheresis, hematopoietic progenitor cell transplantation, cellular therapy (including CAR-T), tissue banking, and the regulatory/quality infrastructure of blood banking.

How many questions are on the ABPath BB/TM exam and how long is it?

The exam contains 280 one-best-answer multiple-choice questions delivered in a combined Written/Practical format over approximately 6 hours 22 minutes. Practical questions include antibody panel worksheets, titers, calculations (CCI, fetomaternal hemorrhage, TRALI donor analysis), and interpretation of graphs/charts. Exam is one-day computer-based at Pearson VUE.

What is the 2026 ABPath BB/TM exam blueprint?

The 2026 BB/TM blueprint (updated for 2026) allocates: Clinical Practice 14%, HPC Transplantation 11%, RBCs/RBC Components 10%, Hazards of Transfusion: Specific Adverse Events 10%, Apheresis 8%, Blood Donors/Blood Collection 7%, Surgery Patients 7%, Obstetric/Pediatric Patients 7%, Plasma Components and Derivatives 6%, Management/Quality/Legal 6%, Platelet Components 6%, Infectious Hazards 4%, Management/Informatics-General 2%, Histocompatibility/Tissue Banking 1%, Biovigilance 1%. Content Specifications (final version 1/2026) provide a hierarchical Core/Advanced Resident/Fellow topic list.

What are the eligibility requirements for the ABPath BB/TM exam?

Candidates must hold ABPath primary certification in AP/CP or CP and have completed an ACGME-accredited 1-year Blood Banking/Transfusion Medicine fellowship. Part-time training is acceptable if in an approved ACGME position, with duration not exceeding twice the required term. Applicants who completed fellowship ≥10 years ago must complete 12 months of additional ACGME-accredited training. Active unrestricted medical license is required. Applications through PATHway portal February 16 – May 15, 2026.

How much does the ABPath BB/TM exam cost in 2026?

The 2026 ABPath subspecialty exam fee is $2,100, which includes a $200 non-refundable administrative fee. There is no late application fee — applications must be submitted by May 15, 2026 via the PATHway portal. Cancellation by June 15 incurs a $500 cancellation fee; after that date, the full fee is forfeited. Retakes require a new application and full $2,100 fee.

When and where is the ABPath BB/TM exam administered?

The 2026 BB/TM subspecialty exam window is September 8 – September 28, 2026, administered at Pearson VUE Professional Testing Centers in the US (limited international locations; exams no longer administered in Quebec, Canada as of 2024). Candidates schedule their own date and location once scheduling opens. The 2027 window is tentatively September 13 – October 2, 2027.

What are the highest-yield topics on the ABPath BB/TM exam?

Clinical Practice (14%) — master pre-transfusion testing, AABB 2023 restrictive thresholds (Hb <7 stable, <7.5 cardiac surg, <8 ortho/CVD), extended phenotype matching, adsorption studies. HPC Transplantation (11%) — CD34 dosing, DMSO/ISHAGE, ABO mismatch management, GVHD (MAGIC/ruxolitinib), CAR-T CRS (ASTCT/tocilizumab). Hazards (10%) — AHTR/DHTR/TRALI/TACO/TA-GVHD/PTP recognition and workup. Apheresis (8%) — ASFA categories (TTP/GBS/MG/anti-GBM = category I). OB/Pediatric (7%) — MCA-PSV, IUT requirements, NAIT, AAP 2022.

How should I study for the ABPath BB/TM exam?

Use the ABPath 2026 BB/TM Content Specifications PDF as a hierarchical study list (C/AR/F designations indicate depth). Anchor to AABB Technical Manual (21st ed), AABB Standards (34th ed), ASFA Special Issue (9th ed, 2023), and Hoffbrand's Postgraduate Hematology for HPC. Practice antibody ID panels daily during fellowship. Master calculations (CCI, Kleihauer-Betke, fetomaternal hemorrhage dose, CD34 target). Review transfusion reaction algorithms and ASFA category tables. Take at least 2 timed full-length practice exams in the 2-3 months before the September window.