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100+ Free ABPath Anatomic Pathology Practice Questions

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A 58-year-old woman has a 1.4 cm breast mass. Core biopsy shows invasive carcinoma with tumor cells in single-file and targetoid patterns. E-cadherin immunostain is negative. Which diagnosis is most likely?

A
B
C
D
to track
2026 Statistics

Key Facts: ABPath Anatomic Pathology Exam

295

Total Questions

205 Written/Practical + 90 Virtual Microscopy

~7h 55m

Total Exam Time

3:25 W/P + 4:30 VM, one-day computer-based

$2,100

AP-Only Fee (2026)

$2,600 for combined AP/CP in same window

15%

Cytopathology Weight

Largest single W/P category (2026 blueprint)

3-4 yrs

ACGME Residency

AP-only 3 yr, combined AP/CP 4 yr

Pearson VUE

Exam Provider

Spring May–June and Fall Oct 2026 windows

The ABPath AP exam tests ~295 one-best-answer questions in two sections (205 W/P + 90 VM) over ~8 hours on one day. 2026 blueprint weights largest categories: Cytopathology 15% (W/P), Alimentary/Pancreas/Liver 12-13%, Breast 8-9%, GU 9-14%, Gynecologic 7-8%, Skin 5-10%, Respiratory 6-7%, Soft Tissue/Bone 5-6%, Endocrine 5-6%. Fee: $2,100 AP-only or $2,600 combined AP/CP. Eligibility requires completion of ACGME-accredited AP residency (3 years) or AP/CP residency (4 years) with satisfactory autopsy log and unrestricted medical license. Exam scheduling via Pearson VUE during May/June (Spring) and October (Fall) windows.

Sample ABPath Anatomic Pathology Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your ABPath Anatomic Pathology exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 58-year-old woman has a 1.4 cm breast mass. Core biopsy shows invasive carcinoma with tumor cells in single-file and targetoid patterns. E-cadherin immunostain is negative. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A.Invasive ductal carcinoma, NST
B.Invasive lobular carcinoma
C.Tubular carcinoma
D.Medullary carcinoma
Explanation: Invasive lobular carcinoma (ILC) classically shows single-file linear growth and targetoid (concentric) patterns around residual ducts, with loss of E-cadherin expression due to CDH1 mutation. ~85% of ILC is E-cadherin negative; the remainder show aberrant cytoplasmic staining. ILC is typically ER+/PR+ and HER2-negative with a lower mitotic rate than NST.
2On core biopsy, a breast lesion demonstrates low-grade nuclei arranged in cribriform and micropapillary architecture confined within duct walls with intact myoepithelium on p63 and calponin. There is no invasion. This is:
A.Invasive ductal carcinoma
B.DCIS, low grade
C.Atypical ductal hyperplasia
D.Lobular carcinoma in situ
Explanation: Low-grade DCIS shows monotonous low-grade nuclei in cribriform or micropapillary patterns with intact myoepithelial layer (p63+/calponin+/SMM-HC+). ADH has identical cytology but is smaller (<2 mm or limited to ≤2 membrane-bound spaces). LCIS shows discohesive cells with E-cadherin loss.
3A triple-negative breast carcinoma (ER-/PR-/HER2-) in a 42-year-old woman is most likely associated with which germline mutation?
A.BRCA1
B.CDH1
C.PTEN
D.TP53
Explanation: BRCA1-associated breast carcinomas are classically high-grade, triple-negative, with basal-like (CK5/6+, EGFR+) phenotype and pushing borders with central necrosis. BRCA2 tumors tend to be ER+. CDH1 is associated with lobular carcinoma and hereditary diffuse gastric cancer. TP53 (Li-Fraumeni) more often presents with HER2+ disease.
4Which HER2 IHC score definitively requires reflex in situ hybridization for HER2 status per ASCO/CAP 2023 guidelines?
A.0
B.1+
C.2+
D.3+
Explanation: HER2 IHC 2+ (equivocal) requires reflex dual-probe ISH (HER2/CEP17) to resolve amplification status. 0 and 1+ are HER2-negative (though HER2-low, score 1+ or 2+/ISH-, now qualifies for trastuzumab-deruxtecan). 3+ is positive without ISH needed.
5A 14-year-old girl has a well-circumscribed, mobile breast mass. Histology shows stromal and epithelial proliferation with intracanalicular and pericanalicular patterns. Mitoses are rare. The best diagnosis is:
A.Fibroadenoma
B.Phyllodes tumor, benign
C.Tubular adenoma
D.Invasive ductal carcinoma
Explanation: Fibroadenoma is the most common benign breast tumor in adolescents and young women — well-circumscribed, biphasic with intracanalicular and/or pericanalicular architecture and bland stroma with rare mitoses. Phyllodes tumors show leaf-like architecture, stromal hypercellularity, and variable mitoses (benign <2.5/mm², borderline 2.5-5, malignant >5).
6A breast lesion on core biopsy shows cells with apical snouts, eosinophilic cytoplasm, clear vacuoles, and mucin. The cells are GCDFP-15 positive and AR positive. Diagnosis?
A.Secretory carcinoma
B.Apocrine carcinoma
C.Mucinous carcinoma
D.Signet ring adenocarcinoma
Explanation: Apocrine carcinoma shows abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm with apical snouts, prominent nucleoli, and is classically AR+ and GCDFP-15+ with typical ER/PR negative phenotype. Secretory carcinoma harbors ETV6-NTRK3 fusion and shows eosinophilic secretions. Mucinous carcinoma has extracellular mucin pools.
7Paget disease of the nipple is characterized by intraepidermal atypical cells. These cells most often express:
A.HER2
B.Melan-A
C.S100
D.CD20
Explanation: Paget cells are large, pale, CK7+ and typically HER2+ glandular cells in the epidermis, with underlying DCIS (most) or invasive carcinoma (~50%). Melan-A/S100 would suggest melanoma (pagetoid spread). HER2 positivity distinguishes Paget disease from melanoma and Bowen disease.
8In Oncotype DX (21-gene recurrence score) for ER+/HER2- breast cancer, the TAILORx trial showed which patients benefit from adjuvant chemotherapy?
A.All node-negative patients
B.Recurrence score 0-10 only
C.Recurrence score 26+ (and node-negative women ≤50 with score 16-25 may benefit)
D.Only patients with grade 3 tumors
Explanation: TAILORx showed RS ≤10 require no chemo; RS 11-25 for women >50 and node-negative can safely skip chemo with endocrine therapy alone; women ≤50 with RS 16-25 derive some chemo benefit. RS ≥26 benefit from chemotherapy. This assay is standard-of-care for early ER+/HER2- breast cancer.
9A 64-year-old woman has bloody nipple discharge. Excision shows a tumor within a dilated duct with fibrovascular cores lined by benign epithelium and myoepithelium. Diagnosis?
A.Intraductal papilloma
B.Invasive papillary carcinoma
C.Papillary DCIS
D.Encapsulated papillary carcinoma
Explanation: Intraductal (central) papilloma has fibrovascular cores lined by both epithelial and myoepithelial cells. Presence of an intact myoepithelial layer (p63+/CK5/6+/calponin+) along papillae distinguishes it from papillary carcinoma, which lacks or has markedly reduced myoepithelial cells.
10A 62-year-old man has a 4.5 cm renal mass. Gross shows golden-yellow cut surface with hemorrhage. Histology shows clear cells in alveolar nests with delicate vasculature. Which genetic alteration is most characteristic?
A.VHL gene loss on chromosome 3p
B.TFE3 translocation at Xp11.2
C.Loss of 1p and 19q
D.FLCN gene mutation
Explanation: Clear cell renal cell carcinoma (most common RCC, ~70%) is characterized by biallelic VHL inactivation on chromosome 3p25, leading to HIF accumulation and angiogenesis (hence delicate sinusoidal vasculature). TFE3 rearrangement defines MiT-family translocation RCC. FLCN → Birt-Hogg-Dubé (hybrid/chromophobe).

About the ABPath Anatomic Pathology Exam

The ABPath Anatomic Pathology examination is a one-day computer-based primary certification exam delivered at Pearson VUE Professional Testing Centers. It consists of a Combined Written/Practical section (205 MCQs, 3 hrs 25 min) and a Virtual Microscopy section (90 MCQs, 4 hrs 30 min), all one-best-answer format. Content spans surgical pathology across all organ systems (GI, GU, breast, gynecologic, skin, respiratory, head & neck, soft tissue/bone, endocrine, CNS, heme/lymphoid), plus cytopathology, forensic/autopsy, molecular techniques, and laboratory management. Candidates are assessed on diagnostic skill, tumor classification, grading/staging, molecular correlation, and correct ancillary testing interpretation.

Questions

295 scored questions

Time Limit

~7 hours 55 minutes (Written/Practical 3:25 + Virtual Microscopy 4:30)

Passing Score

Criterion-referenced scaled standard (modified Angoff). Candidates must pass both W/P and VM sections.

Exam Fee

$2,100 AP-only / $2,600 combined AP/CP (ABPath 2026) (American Board of Pathology (ABPath) — administered via Pearson VUE)

ABPath Anatomic Pathology Exam Content Outline

~15%

Cytopathology

Bethesda cervical, Bethesda thyroid (categories I-VI), Milan salivary gland, Paris urine (TPS 2.0), WHOPSC pancreatobiliary, FNA of thyroid/salivary/lymph node/lung/liver with immunohistochemical panels.

~12-13%

Alimentary Canal / Pancreas / Liver / Biliary / Gallbladder

IBD (UC vs Crohn), H. pylori gastritis, Barrett/adenocarcinoma, celiac Marsh, IBD-associated dysplasia, MSI/MMR and Lynch workup, KRAS in pancreatic adenocarcinoma, HCC (arginase-1/HepPar-1), PBC/PSC, hepatitis B/C.

~9-14%

Genitourinary

RCC subtypes (clear cell/VHL, papillary type 1/type 2, chromophobe, MiT-family), urothelial WHO grading and AJCC staging, prostate Gleason grade groups with AMACR/p63 panel, testicular germ cell tumors (seminoma, yolk sac Schiller-Duval).

~8-9%

Breast

DCIS vs ADH, invasive lobular (E-cadherin loss) vs ductal, ER/PR/HER2 ASCO/CAP reporting, HER2-low and DESTINY, BRCA triple-negative, fibroadenoma vs phyllodes, intraductal papilloma, Paget disease, Oncotype DX/TAILORx, sentinel node ITC/micrometastasis.

~7-8%

Gynecologic and Placenta

Endometrial TCGA/ProMisE (POLE, MMRd, NSMP, p53abn), HPV-associated vs -independent endocervical adenocarcinoma (IECC), HSIL (CIN 2-3)/p16 block+, HGSOC BRCA/HRD/PARP, complete vs partial mole (p57), ovarian germ cell and sex-cord stromal tumors.

~5-10%

Skin

Melanoma AJCC 8 (Breslow, ulceration, pT1a vs pT1b), BRAF/NRAS/KIT, BCC subtypes (nodular/superficial/infiltrative), SCC/AK/Bowen, Merkel cell MCPyV/CK20 dot, DFSP (COL1A1-PDGFB), bullous pemphigoid vs pemphigus DIF patterns.

~6-7%

Respiratory / Pleura / Mediastinum

Lung adenocarcinoma (EGFR/ALK/ROS1/BRAF/KRAS G12C), squamous (p40), SCLC, mesothelioma (calretinin/WT1/BAP1), UIP/IPF vs NSIP, PD-L1 TPS ≥50% pembrolizumab, thymoma WHO classification.

~5-6%

Soft Tissue / Bone

Liposarcoma (WDLPS MDM2, myxoid FUS-DDIT3, pleomorphic), Ewing (EWSR1-FLI1), synovial sarcoma (SS18-SSX), GIST (c-kit/DOG1/PDGFRA), osteosarcoma, chondrosarcoma, giant cell tumor (H3F3A G34W).

~5-6%

Endocrine

Thyroid PTC (BRAF V600E), FTC, MTC (RET/MEN2), pheo Zellballen/SDHx, adrenocortical Weiss criteria, parathyroid adenoma vs carcinoma, pancreatic NET Ki-67 grading.

~4-6%

Lymph Nodes and Spleen

Classic Hodgkin vs NLPHL, follicular t(14;18)/BCL2, mantle cell t(11;14)/cyclin D1, Burkitt MYC, DLBCL GCB vs ABC, hairy cell annexin A1/BRAF V600E.

~4-7%

Head and Neck

Pleomorphic adenoma PLAG1, Warthin, adenoid cystic MYB-NFIB, mucoepidermoid MAML2, polymorphous adenocarcinoma, PTC nuclear features, HPV-associated oropharyngeal SCC p16.

~3-6%

CNS (WHO CNS5)

Glioblastoma IDH-wildtype vs astrocytoma IDH-mutant grading (WHO 2021), oligodendroglioma IDH-mutant 1p/19q co-deleted, medulloblastoma molecular groups (WNT/SHH/Group 3/Group 4), meningioma grading with CDKN2A/TERT integration.

~3-4%

Bone Marrow

AML with recurrent genetics (APL t(15;17), CBF, NPM1/FLT3), CML (BCR-ABL1/Philadelphia), MDS with del(5q), myeloproliferative neoplasms (JAK2 V617F, CALR, MPL), multiple myeloma, ALL.

~2-3%

Forensic / Autopsy

Myocardial infarction timeline, gunshot wound range-of-fire (contact/stippling/distant), asphyxia (hanging, ligature, manual), pediatric forensic pathology, death certification.

~5% combined

Molecular Techniques + Management & Informatics

FISH (break-apart, dual-fusion), IHC antigen retrieval, NGS, ctDNA, MLH1 methylation/BRAF Lynch workup, ASCO/CAP preanalytic standards (cold ischemia, fixation 6-72 hr), CLIA/CAP proficiency testing rules.

How to Pass the ABPath Anatomic Pathology Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Criterion-referenced scaled standard (modified Angoff). Candidates must pass both W/P and VM sections.
  • Exam length: 295 questions
  • Time limit: ~7 hours 55 minutes (Written/Practical 3:25 + Virtual Microscopy 4:30)
  • Exam fee: $2,100 AP-only / $2,600 combined AP/CP (ABPath 2026)

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

ABPath Anatomic Pathology Study Tips from Top Performers

1Use virtual microscopy practice daily — the ABPath VM section is 4 hours 30 minutes and requires pattern recognition on whole-slide images without glass slides
2Master the 2021 TCGA/ProMisE endometrial classification (POLE ultramutated, MMRd, NSMP/no-specific-molecular-profile, p53-abnormal) and know that MMR IHC + p53 + POLE sequencing is standard-of-care reporting
3Know the WHO CNS5 (2021) integrated diagnosis for gliomas: IDH-wildtype glioblastoma grade 4, IDH-mutant astrocytoma (grades 2-4), IDH-mutant 1p/19q-codeleted oligodendroglioma (grades 2-3). Molecular status now drives grade
4Memorize the BRAF V600E algorithm for MLH1/PMS2 loss in colorectal cancer — BRAF-mutant favors sporadic MLH1 promoter methylation; BRAF-wildtype with MLH1/PMS2 loss or any MSH2/MSH6/PMS2 loss alone requires Lynch syndrome germline testing
5Learn ASCO/CAP preanalytic standards: cold ischemia ≤1 hour, formalin fixation 6-72 hours in 10% NBF for breast biomarkers (ER/PR/HER2). Prolonged cold ischemia or fixation outside range triggers rejection/repeat

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the ABPath Anatomic Pathology exam?

The ABPath Anatomic Pathology exam is the primary certification examination offered by the American Board of Pathology for pathologists completing AP-only or combined AP/CP residency training. It is a one-day computer-based exam delivered at Pearson VUE testing centers, with 205 one-best-answer questions in a combined Written/Practical section and 90 Virtual Microscopy questions — 295 total questions over approximately 8 hours.

How many questions are on the ABPath AP exam and how long is it?

The AP exam contains 295 multiple-choice one-best-answer questions split into two sections: Combined Written/Practical (205 questions in 3 hours 25 minutes) and Virtual Microscopy (90 questions in 4 hours 30 minutes). There are no glass slides — all histology is viewed through virtual microscopy. Candidates must pass both sections in the same administration.

What is the 2026 ABPath AP blueprint?

The 2026 AP blueprint (effective January 2026) allocates the largest weights to Cytopathology (15% W/P + 2% VM), Alimentary/Pancreas/Liver/Biliary (12-13%), Genitourinary (9-14%), Breast (8-9%), Gynecologic/Placenta (7-8%), Respiratory/Pleura/Mediastinum (6-7%), Skin (5-10%), Endocrine (5-6%), Soft Tissue/Bone (5-6%), Lymph Nodes/Spleen (4-6%), Head and Neck (4-7%), CNS (3-6%), Bone Marrow (3-4%), Forensic/Autopsy (2-3%), Cardiovascular (~2%), Medical Kidney (~1-2%), and AP Management & General + Molecular Techniques (~5% combined).

What is the passing score for the ABPath AP exam?

ABPath uses criterion-referenced scoring with a scaled passing standard set by content experts through a modified Angoff process. Candidates are measured against a fixed content standard, not curved against peers. Both the Written/Practical section and the Virtual Microscopy section must be passed in the same administration. Score reports are pass/fail plus diagnostic domain performance.

What are the eligibility requirements for the ABPath AP exam?

Candidates must hold an MD or DO degree, have completed ACGME-accredited pathology training (AP-only = 3 years; combined AP/CP = 4 years), maintain an active unrestricted medical or osteopathic license, and submit a satisfactory ACGME autopsy log (50 autopsies required for AP certification). Candidates apply via the PATHway portal during the February 16–May 15 window for Fall primary exams; Spring applications open in September.

How much does the ABPath AP exam cost in 2026?

The ABPath primary certification exam fee in 2026 is $2,100 for AP-only or $2,600 for combined AP/CP taken in the same window. The fee includes a $200 non-refundable administrative fee. Candidates taking AP and CP in separate windows pay $2,100 each ($4,200 total). There is no late application fee — all applications must be submitted by the May 15 deadline.

What are the highest-yield topics on the ABPath AP exam?

Cytopathology carries the largest single topic weight (15% W/P) — master Bethesda cervical/thyroid, Milan salivary, Paris urine, and WHOPSC pancreatobiliary systems. GI is ~12-13% — emphasize MMR/MSI Lynch workup, KRAS in pancreatic adenocarcinoma, HCC IHC. Breast (~8-9%) requires ER/PR/HER2 reporting per ASCO/CAP, E-cadherin for lobular carcinoma, and Oncotype DX/TAILORx. GU (~9-14%) needs Gleason grade groups, RCC subtypes, and urothelial staging. GYN (~7-8%) requires TCGA/ProMisE and p16/HPV interpretation.

How should I study for the ABPath AP exam?

Use the official ABPath 2026 AP Blueprint as a roadmap. Build a 12-18 month longitudinal plan through AP/CP residency: start with high-weight surgical pathology (breast, GI, GU, GYN — together >35% of exam), then skin/H&N/lung, then heme/lymphoid/CNS/endocrine/soft tissue, and finish with cytology, forensic/autopsy, molecular, and lab management. Use virtual microscopy practice daily (the VM section is 4.5 hours). Take at least two timed full-length practice exams. Integrate current WHO 2022 classifications (WHO CNS5 2021, WHO breast, WHO digestive) and AJCC 8th edition staging.