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100+ Free ABPath Combined AP/CP Primary Certification Practice Questions

Pass your American Board of Pathology Combined Anatomic Pathology / Clinical Pathology Primary Certification Examination exam on the first try — instant access, no signup required.

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A 56-year-old woman has a 1.6 cm breast mass. Core biopsy shows invasive carcinoma growing in single-file linear cords with targetoid arrangement around residual ducts. E-cadherin immunostain is negative. The most likely diagnosis is:

A
B
C
D
to track
2026 Statistics

Key Facts: ABPath Combined AP/CP Primary Certification Exam

625

Total Questions

AP 295 + CP 330 (2026 combined route)

~14.5h

Total Exam Time

AP 7h 55m + CP 6h 36m across 2 days

$2,600

Combined Fee (2026)

Saves $1,600 vs separate windows ($4,200)

4 yrs

ACGME Combined Residency

Required vs 3 yrs for AP-only or CP-only

Pearson VUE

Exam Provider

Spring May–June and Fall Oct 2026 windows

50

Required Autopsies

ACGME log for AP component certification

The combined AP/CP route covers two separate exams totaling ~625 questions over two testing days within the same window. AP blueprint emphasizes Cytopathology (15% W/P), GI (12-13%), GU (9-14%), Breast (8-9%), GYN (7-8%), Skin (5-10%), Respiratory (6-7%), plus Heme/Lymphoid, CNS, Endocrine, Soft Tissue, Forensic, Molecular, and Lab Management. CP blueprint allocates Hematopathology 25%, Blood Banking/Transfusion Medicine 23%, Medical Microbiology 23%, Chemical Pathology 20%, and Management/Informatics 9%. Fee: $2,600 combined in the same window vs $4,200 if AP and CP are taken in separate windows ($1,600 savings). Eligibility requires completion of an ACGME-accredited 4-year combined AP/CP residency with satisfactory autopsy log (50 autopsies) and unrestricted medical license.

Sample ABPath Combined AP/CP Primary Certification Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your ABPath Combined AP/CP Primary Certification exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 56-year-old woman has a 1.6 cm breast mass. Core biopsy shows invasive carcinoma growing in single-file linear cords with targetoid arrangement around residual ducts. E-cadherin immunostain is negative. The most likely diagnosis is:
A.Invasive ductal carcinoma, NST
B.Invasive lobular carcinoma
C.Tubular carcinoma
D.Mucinous carcinoma
Explanation: Invasive lobular carcinoma (ILC) classically grows as single-file linear cords and targetoid (concentric) patterns around uninvolved ducts, with loss of E-cadherin from CDH1 alteration. ~85% of ILC is E-cadherin negative; the remainder show aberrant cytoplasmic dot-like staining. ILC is typically ER+/PR+ and HER2-negative with lower mitotic rate than NST.
2On core needle biopsy of a breast lesion, low-grade nuclei form cribriform and micropapillary architecture confined within duct walls. p63 and calponin highlight an intact peripheral myoepithelial layer; there is no stromal invasion. The diagnosis is:
A.Invasive ductal carcinoma, well-differentiated
B.Atypical ductal hyperplasia
C.Ductal carcinoma in situ, low grade
D.Lobular carcinoma in situ
Explanation: Low-grade DCIS shows monotonous low-grade nuclei in cribriform or micropapillary patterns with an intact myoepithelial layer (p63+/calponin+/SMM-HC+). ADH has identical cytology but is limited (<2 mm or ≤2 membrane-bound spaces). LCIS is discohesive with E-cadherin loss. Invasion would breach the myoepithelial layer.
3Per ASCO/CAP 2023 HER2 testing guidelines, which IHC score requires reflex in situ hybridization to determine HER2 amplification status?
A.0
B.1+
C.2+
D.3+
Explanation: HER2 IHC 2+ (equivocal) requires reflex dual-probe ISH (HER2/CEP17) to resolve amplification status. 0 and 1+ are HER2-negative for traditional therapy (though 1+ and 2+/ISH-negative now qualify as HER2-low for trastuzumab-deruxtecan after DESTINY-Breast04). 3+ is HER2-positive without ISH needed.
4A 14-year-old girl has a well-circumscribed mobile breast mass. Histology shows biphasic stromal and epithelial proliferation with intracanalicular and pericanalicular patterns. Stromal mitoses are rare and there is no stromal overgrowth. The diagnosis is:
A.Fibroadenoma
B.Phyllodes tumor, malignant
C.Tubular adenoma
D.Invasive lobular carcinoma
Explanation: Fibroadenoma is the most common benign breast tumor in adolescents — well-circumscribed, biphasic with intracanalicular and/or pericanalicular architecture and bland stroma with rare mitoses. Phyllodes tumors show leaf-like architecture, stromal hypercellularity, and elevated mitoses (benign <2.5/mm², borderline 2.5-5, malignant >5/mm² with stromal overgrowth).
5A triple-negative (ER-/PR-/HER2-) breast carcinoma in a 38-year-old woman with a basal-like phenotype (CK5/6+, EGFR+) and pushing borders with central necrosis is most strongly associated with which germline mutation?
A.BRCA1
B.CDH1
C.PTEN
D.STK11
Explanation: BRCA1-associated breast cancers are classically high-grade, triple-negative, with basal-like phenotype (CK5/6+, EGFR+) and pushing borders with central necrosis and lymphocytic infiltrate. BRCA2 tumors are usually ER+. CDH1 → hereditary diffuse gastric cancer and lobular carcinoma. PTEN (Cowden) → mixed pattern. STK11 → Peutz-Jeghers.
6Paget disease of the nipple shows large pale intraepidermal cells with prominent nucleoli. Which immunoprofile most reliably distinguishes Paget cells from melanoma in pagetoid spread?
A.S100+, Melan-A+
B.CK7+, HER2+
C.p63+, CK5/6+
D.CD20+, PAX5+
Explanation: Paget cells are CK7+ and typically HER2+ glandular cells in the epidermis, usually with underlying DCIS or invasive carcinoma. Melanoma in pagetoid spread is S100+/Melan-A+/HMB45+. p63/CK5/6 favors squamous (Bowen). HER2 positivity distinguishes Paget from melanoma and Bowen disease.
7A breast lesion shows cells with apical snouts, abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm, prominent nucleoli, and apocrine differentiation. The cells are AR+, GCDFP-15+, ER-, and PR-. The diagnosis is:
A.Mucinous carcinoma
B.Apocrine carcinoma
C.Secretory carcinoma
D.Tubular carcinoma
Explanation: Apocrine carcinoma shows abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm with apical snouts and is classically AR+/GCDFP-15+ with ER/PR negative phenotype. HER2 is positive in ~50%. Secretory carcinoma harbors ETV6-NTRK3 fusion with eosinophilic intracytoplasmic and luminal secretions. Mucinous carcinoma has extracellular mucin.
8Per ASCO/CAP preanalytic standards for breast biomarker testing (ER/PR/HER2), formalin fixation in 10% NBF should be:
A.1 to 4 hours
B.6 to 72 hours
C.At least 7 days
D.Variable, no minimum
Explanation: ASCO/CAP standards mandate cold ischemia ≤1 hour and 10% neutral buffered formalin fixation for 6-72 hours for breast biomarkers. Under-fixation (<6 hr) and over-fixation (>72 hr) both compromise antigenicity and are reasons to reject the specimen. Cold ischemia >1 hour also requires re-biopsy/re-resection consideration.
9Oncotype DX is most useful for guiding adjuvant chemotherapy in which breast cancer subtype?
A.ER+, HER2-, node-negative early-stage breast cancer
B.Triple-negative breast cancer
C.HER2-amplified breast cancer
D.Inflammatory breast cancer
Explanation: Oncotype DX 21-gene Recurrence Score (RS) is validated for ER+, HER2-, node-negative early-stage breast cancer. The TAILORx trial showed RS 0-25 do not benefit from chemotherapy in this group (women >50). RS guides chemotherapy decisions for ER+/HER2- disease — not for TNBC, HER2+, or inflammatory subtypes.
10On a sentinel lymph node from a breast carcinoma resection, a focus measures 0.4 mm. Per AJCC 8 staging, this is classified as:
A.Isolated tumor cells (ITC, pN0(i+))
B.Micrometastasis (pN1mi)
C.Macrometastasis (pN1)
D.Negative (pN0)
Explanation: AJCC 8 nodal staging for breast: Isolated tumor cells (ITC) ≤0.2 mm or <200 cells = pN0(i+); micrometastasis >0.2 mm to ≤2 mm = pN1mi; macrometastasis >2 mm = pN1. A 0.4 mm focus falls within micrometastasis (pN1mi).

About the ABPath Combined AP/CP Primary Certification Exam

The ABPath Combined Anatomic Pathology / Clinical Pathology examination is taken by pathologists completing a 4-year ACGME-accredited combined AP/CP residency. Candidates sit for both the AP exam (295 MCQs across two sections — 205 Combined Written/Practical and 90 Virtual Microscopy, ~7h 55m) and the CP exam (330 MCQs in a combined Written/Practical format, ~6h 36m) within the same Spring or Fall window. Content spans the entirety of pathology: surgical pathology by organ system (GI, GU, GYN, breast, lung, head & neck, soft tissue, dermpath, CNS), cytopathology, hematopathology, blood banking and transfusion medicine, chemical pathology, medical microbiology, molecular pathology, and laboratory management/informatics. Combined certification is awarded only when both AP and CP are passed.

Questions

625 scored questions

Time Limit

Two days: AP ~7h 55m (3:25 W/P + 4:30 VM) + CP ~6h 36m (combined Written/Practical)

Passing Score

Criterion-referenced scaled standard (modified Angoff). Combined certification awarded only when AP (both W/P and VM) and CP are passed in the same window.

Exam Fee

$2,600 combined AP/CP in same window (ABPath 2026; $4,200 if separate) (American Board of Pathology (ABPath) — administered via Pearson VUE)

ABPath Combined AP/CP Primary Certification Exam Content Outline

12%

AP — Surgical Pathology: Breast

DCIS vs ADH (myoepithelial markers p63/calponin), invasive lobular (E-cadherin loss), invasive ductal NST grading (Nottingham), ER/PR/HER2 ASCO/CAP 2023 reporting, HER2-low (1+ or 2+/ISH-) qualifying for trastuzumab-deruxtecan, BRCA-associated triple-negative basal-like, fibroadenoma vs phyllodes (mitoses, stromal overgrowth), Paget disease (HER2+/CK7+), Oncotype DX/TAILORx.

12%

AP — Surgical Pathology: GI / Pancreas / Liver

IBD (UC vs Crohn — distribution, granulomas), H. pylori gastritis, Barrett esophagus and dysplasia, MMR/MSI Lynch workup (BRAF V600E for MLH1/PMS2 loss → sporadic methylation vs Lynch), KRAS in pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma, IPMN/MCN, HCC IHC (arginase-1/HepPar-1/glypican-3), cholangiocarcinoma, PBC vs PSC, viral hepatitis grading.

12%

AP — Surgical Pathology: GU + GYN

RCC subtypes (clear cell/VHL, papillary type 1/2, chromophobe, MiT-family TFE3/TFEB), urothelial WHO grade and AJCC staging, prostate Gleason grade groups (AMACR/p63 panel), testicular germ cell tumors (seminoma, yolk sac/Schiller-Duval). Endometrial TCGA/ProMisE (POLE, MMRd, NSMP, p53abn), HPV-associated vs -independent endocervical adenocarcinoma (IECC), HSIL p16 block+, HGSOC BRCA/HRD, complete vs partial mole (p57).

10%

AP — Cytopathology

Bethesda cervical (NILM/ASC-US/LSIL/HSIL/AGC), Bethesda thyroid (categories I-VI with risk of malignancy), Milan salivary gland, Paris urine (TPS 2.0 — atypical/suspicious for HGUC), WHOPSC pancreatobiliary system, FNA of thyroid/salivary/lymph node/lung/liver with IHC panels and ROSE for adequacy.

8%

AP — Skin / H&N / Lung / Soft Tissue / Endocrine / Heme / CNS / Forensic / Molecular

Melanoma AJCC 8 (Breslow, ulceration, BRAF/NRAS/KIT), salivary gland fusions (PLAG1, MYB-NFIB, MAML2), lung adenocarcinoma drivers (EGFR/ALK/ROS1/BRAF/KRAS G12C), p40 squamous, mesothelioma (calretinin/WT1/BAP1 loss), sarcoma fusions (Ewing EWSR1-FLI1, synovial SS18-SSX, GIST c-kit/DOG1), thyroid (BRAF V600E PTC, MTC RET/MEN2), pheo Zellballen/SDHx, Hodgkin vs NHL, follicular t(14;18), mantle cell t(11;14), Burkitt MYC, WHO CNS5 integrated diagnosis (IDH, 1p/19q, MGMT), MI timeline, GSW range-of-fire, FISH/NGS, MLH1 methylation, ASCO/CAP preanalytics.

13%

CP — Hematopathology

Microcytic anemia differential (iron deficiency vs thalassemia trait — Mentzer, RDW, ferritin/TSAT), AIHA DAT patterns (warm IgG vs cold IgM+C3), TTP/ADAMTS13 <10% with PEX + caplacizumab, HIT 4Ts → PF4/heparin ELISA → SRA, DIC labs, factor deficiencies (PT vs aPTT mixing studies), AML with recurrent genetics (APL t(15;17) PML-RARA → ATRA+ATO, CBF inv(16)/t(8;21), NPM1/FLT3 risk stratification), CML BCR-ABL1 Philadelphia → TKI, MPN (JAK2 V617F, CALR, MPL), MDS with del(5q) → lenalidomide, multiple myeloma IMWG CRAB/SLiM, CLL/SLL flow (CD5+/CD23+/CD20 dim), B-ALL TdT+/CD10+.

11%

CP — Blood Banking / Transfusion Medicine

ABO/H antigen genetics, weak D testing, DAT (warm IgG vs cold IgM+C3 vs drug-induced), antibody ID panel interpretation, electronic vs serologic crossmatch, massive transfusion 1:1:1 (PROPPR trial), AHTR (clerical error/ABO incompatibility) vs DHTR (anamnestic Kidd antibodies), TRALI (HLA/HNA donor antibodies) vs TACO (volume overload), platelet thresholds (10k prophylactic, 20k fever, 50k procedures, 100k neurosurgery), FFP 10-15 mL/kg, cryoprecipitate (fibrinogen/VIII/XIII/vWF), leukoreduced/irradiated/washed indications, RhIG dosing, ASFA category I-IV (TTP, Guillain-Barré, MG), HPC DMSO cryopreservation, FDA 2023 nondeferral donor policy.

11%

CP — Medical Microbiology

Bacteriology Gram + biochemicals (catalase, coagulase, optochin, bacitracin, PYR), MRSA mecA/cefoxitin disk, VRE vanA (high-level inducible) vs vanB, CRE (KPC vs NDM/VIM/OXA — ceftazidime-avibactam, cefiderocol), Mycobacteria (Ziehl-Neelsen/auramine-rhodamine, Xpert MTB/RIF rapid rifampin resistance), Cryptococcus India ink and serum/CSF CrAg, Aspergillus galactomannan and beta-D-glucan, Pneumocystis jirovecii silver stain, hepatitis serology (acute vs chronic vs immune), HIV 4th-gen Ag/Ab, syphilis reverse algorithm (treponemal then non-treponemal), malaria thick/thin smear, Cryptosporidium acid-fast, C. difficile NAAT + toxin EIA + clinical context, CLSI M100 breakpoints, MALDI-TOF identification, multiplex PCR syndromic panels.

9%

CP — Chemical Pathology

Electrolytes/acid-base (anion gap acidosis: methanol, salicylate, DKA, lactic; osmolar gap: methanol, ethylene glycol, mannitol), HbA1c (NGSP/IFCC, altered by RBC lifespan in hemolysis/transfusion), Friedewald LDL vs direct, hs-troponin (99th percentile + delta change), BNP/NT-proBNP rule-out (<100/<300), TSH-reflex algorithm, cortisol/ACTH/cosyntropin stim, PTH/calcium relationship, lead toxicity (ALA dehydratase/ferrochelatase), acetaminophen Rumack-Matthew nomogram (line from 150 μg/mL at 4 hr), salicylate toxicity (respiratory alkalosis + AG acidosis), TDM (vancomycin AUC 400-600 or trough 15-20, digoxin 0.5-0.9, lithium 0.6-1.2), SPEP/IFE for monoclonal gammopathy, hCG doubling, hemoglobin HPLC, mass spectrometry for vitamin D/steroids/drugs.

1%

CP — Laboratory Management / Informatics

CLIA test complexity (waived/moderate/high), proficiency testing rules (no referral, routine handling), HIPAA TPO + public health/research exceptions, Westgard multi-rules (1_3s, 2_2s, R_4s, 4_1s, 10_x), Levey-Jennings charts, CLSI EP28-A3c reference interval establishment (≥120 samples, 2.5-97.5 percentile), biostatistics (sensitivity/specificity, PPV/NPV, ROC/AUC, prevalence effect on PPV), Six Sigma DPMO, LOINC/SNOMED/CPT/ICD-10/HCPCS coding, FDA 2024 LDT rule, CAP/AMP NGS validation (Jennings 2017), lab director CLIA duties, preanalytic quality indicators.

1%

AP — Pediatric / Perinatal Pathology + Neuropathology integration

Neuroblastoma (MYCN amplification, INPC classification), Wilms tumor (WT1, anaplasia, three-component: blastemal/stromal/epithelial), hepatoblastoma (fetal vs embryonal), placental disorders (acute chorioamnionitis with maternal/fetal response staging, MVM/FVM), MDS in children, congenital leukemia, neonatal autopsy. Neuropathology: WHO CNS5 medulloblastoma molecular groups (WNT/SHH/Group 3/Group 4), ependymoma molecular subgroups, atypical teratoid/rhabdoid tumor (SMARCB1/INI1 loss).

How to Pass the ABPath Combined AP/CP Primary Certification Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Criterion-referenced scaled standard (modified Angoff). Combined certification awarded only when AP (both W/P and VM) and CP are passed in the same window.
  • Exam length: 625 questions
  • Time limit: Two days: AP ~7h 55m (3:25 W/P + 4:30 VM) + CP ~6h 36m (combined Written/Practical)
  • Exam fee: $2,600 combined AP/CP in same window (ABPath 2026; $4,200 if separate)

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

ABPath Combined AP/CP Primary Certification Study Tips from Top Performers

1Start the CP exam earlier than the AP exam in your prep — most AP/CP residents under-prepare for blood banking antibody-ID panels and microbiology biochemicals. Practice DAT/antibody panel interpretation weekly from PGY2
2Take advantage of the same-window discount: $2,600 combined vs $4,200 separate ($1,600 savings). Schedule both AP and CP in the same Spring or Fall window unless there is a compelling clinical-rotation conflict
3Master the AP virtual microscopy section — it is 4 hours 30 minutes and uses whole-slide imaging without glass. Daily VM practice from PGY3 builds the pattern recognition stamina needed
4Learn the BRAF V600E algorithm for MLH1/PMS2 loss in colorectal cancer — BRAF-mutant favors sporadic MLH1 promoter methylation; BRAF-wildtype with MMR loss requires Lynch syndrome germline testing. This appears on AP and CP molecular sections
5Memorize CP must-knows that anchor 30+ exam questions: PROPPR 1:1:1 MTP, HIT 4Ts → PF4 ELISA → SRA, Rumack-Matthew nomogram (line from 150 μg/mL at 4 hr), Westgard 1_3s/2_2s rejection rules, and CLSI M100 breakpoints

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the ABPath Combined AP/CP primary certification exam?

The ABPath Combined Anatomic Pathology / Clinical Pathology examination is the primary certification taken by pathologists who complete a 4-year ACGME-accredited combined AP/CP residency. Candidates sit for both the AP exam (295 MCQs across Combined Written/Practical and Virtual Microscopy sections) and the CP exam (330 MCQs in a combined Written/Practical format) within the same Spring or Fall window. Combined certification is awarded only when both AP and CP are passed.

How many questions are on the combined AP/CP exam and how long is the testing?

The combined route totals ~625 questions across two separate exam days within the same window. The AP exam has 295 one-best-answer questions split into Combined Written/Practical (205 questions in 3 hours 25 minutes) and Virtual Microscopy (90 questions in 4 hours 30 minutes) — total ~7 hours 55 minutes. The CP exam has 330 one-best-answer questions in a combined Written/Practical format over ~6 hours 36 minutes. Total testing is approximately 14.5 hours across two days.

What is the 2026 ABPath combined AP/CP blueprint?

The 2026 AP blueprint allocates Cytopathology (15% W/P + 2% VM), Alimentary/Pancreas/Liver (12-13%), Genitourinary (9-14%), Breast (8-9%), Gynecologic/Placenta (7-8%), Respiratory (6-7%), Skin (5-10%), Endocrine (5-6%), Soft Tissue/Bone (5-6%), Lymph/Spleen (4-6%), Head and Neck (4-7%), CNS (3-6%), Bone Marrow (3-4%), Forensic (2-3%), Cardiovascular (~2%), Medical Kidney (~1-2%), and Molecular + Management (~5% combined). The 2026 CP blueprint allocates Hematopathology 25%, Blood Banking/Transfusion Medicine 23%, Medical Microbiology 23%, Chemical Pathology 20%, and Management/Informatics 9%.

What is the passing score for the combined AP/CP exam?

ABPath uses criterion-referenced scoring with a scaled passing standard set by content experts via a modified Angoff process. Candidates are measured against a fixed content standard, not curved against peers. The AP exam requires passing both Written/Practical and Virtual Microscopy sections; the CP exam is a single pass/fail determination. Combined certification is awarded only when both AP and CP are passed. Score reports include diagnostic performance by content domain.

What are the eligibility requirements for the combined AP/CP exam?

Candidates must hold an MD or DO degree, have completed an ACGME-accredited combined AP/CP residency of at least 4 years, maintain an active unrestricted medical or osteopathic license, and submit a satisfactory ACGME autopsy log of at least 50 autopsies (required for the AP component). Candidates apply via the PATHway portal during the February 16 – May 15 window for Fall primary exams; Spring applications open in September of the prior year.

How much does the combined AP/CP exam cost in 2026 and is the discount worth it?

The combined AP/CP fee in 2026 is $2,600 when both exams are taken in the same window (Spring or Fall), versus $4,200 if AP and CP are taken in separate windows ($2,100 each). Taking both in the same window saves $1,600 — virtually all combined-residency candidates choose this option to capture the discount. The $2,600 includes a $200 non-refundable administrative fee. Failed disciplines require a new application and the full $2,100 per-discipline retake fee.

What are the highest-yield topics on the combined AP/CP exam?

On AP: Cytopathology (15% W/P) — Bethesda cervical/thyroid, Milan, Paris, WHOPSC. GI (~12-13%) — MMR/MSI Lynch workup with BRAF V600E reflex, KRAS in pancreas, HCC IHC. GU (~9-14%) — Gleason grade groups, RCC subtypes, urothelial staging. Breast (~8-9%) — ER/PR/HER2 ASCO/CAP, E-cadherin for lobular. GYN (~7-8%) — TCGA/ProMisE endometrial, p16/HPV. On CP: Hematopathology (25%) — TTP/ADAMTS13, HIT 4Ts, APL t(15;17), CML BCR-ABL. Blood Banking (23%) — ABO genetics, antibody ID, MTP 1:1:1, TRALI vs TACO, ASFA categories. Microbiology (23%) — MRSA mecA, CRE carbapenemase typing, CLSI breakpoints. Chemistry (20%) — acid-base/osmolar gap, Rumack-Matthew, TDM (vanc AUC, digoxin, lithium).

How should I study for the combined AP/CP exam?

Plan an 18-24 month longitudinal study schedule across PGY3-PGY4 of the combined residency. Phase 1 (PGY3): high-weight AP surgical pathology — breast, GI, GU (>30% of AP). Phase 2 (PGY3-PGY4): AP — GYN, skin, H&N, lung, heme/lymphoid, CNS, endocrine, soft tissue, plus cytology and forensic. Phase 3 (PGY4): CP hematopathology and blood banking (48% of CP combined). Phase 4 (final 3-4 months): CP microbiology, chemistry, and management/informatics; full-length timed practice exams with virtual microscopy focus for AP. Integrate WHO 2022/CNS5 2021, AJCC 8, AABB 21st ed, CLSI M100 (annual), ASCO/CAP, and the 2024 FDA LDT rule.

Can I take AP and CP in different windows?

Yes — a combined-residency graduate is permitted to schedule AP and CP in different exam windows, but doing so forfeits the combined-fee discount and costs $4,200 total ($2,100 per exam) instead of $2,600. The vast majority of combined AP/CP residents take both exams in the same window (typically the Fall after PGY4 graduation or Spring of PGY4) to capture the $1,600 savings. Combined certification is awarded only after both AP and CP are passed, regardless of whether they are taken in the same window.