100+ Free ABOG Reproductive Endocrinology and Infertility Practice Questions

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Question 1

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The hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis relies on pulsatile GnRH secretion from the arcuate nucleus. What frequency of GnRH pulses preferentially stimulates FSH over LH release?

Slow-frequency pulses (every 90-120 min) favor FSH release

Fast-frequency pulses (every 60 min) favor FSH release

Continuous GnRH administration preferentially releases FSH

GnRH pulse frequency does not affect FSH vs LH release

to track

2026 Statistics

Key Facts: ABOG Reproductive Endocrinology and Infertility Exam

200

Multiple-Choice Questions (QE)

ABOG Qualifying Exam at Pearson VUE

QE Blueprint Content Domains

ABOG REI Qualifying Exam Blueprint (public)

$2,195

2026 QE Application Fee

ABOG Subspecialty Qualifying Exam

36 months

ACGME REI Fellowship Length

AY2022-2023 ABOG standards (18 months core clinical)

July 20, 2026

QE Exam Date

ABOG 2026 subspecialty schedule

2 steps

Qualifying + Certifying

Written MCQ, then oral exam in Dallas

ABOG REI is a two-step subspecialty certification: a ~4-hour computer-based Qualifying Exam (single-best-answer MCQs at Pearson VUE on July 20, 2026) followed by an oral Certifying Examination in Dallas. The ABOG REI QE Blueprint allocates Basic Science & Pathophysiology 15%, Diagnostic Techniques 10%, Reproductive Endocrine Disease 15%, Female Fertility/PCOS 5%, Male Infertility 3%, RPL 2%, Fertility Preservation 5%, ART Techniques 10%, Complex Reproductive Disorders 10%, Reproductive Surgery 5%, Genetics 10%, and Core Competencies/Cross Content 10%. 2026 QE fee is $2,195; CE fee is $1,275. Passing is criterion-referenced; first-time pass rates run ~85-92%.

Sample ABOG Reproductive Endocrinology and Infertility Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your ABOG Reproductive Endocrinology and Infertility exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1The hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis relies on pulsatile GnRH secretion from the arcuate nucleus. What frequency of GnRH pulses preferentially stimulates FSH over LH release?

A.Slow-frequency pulses (every 90-120 min) favor FSH release

B.Fast-frequency pulses (every 60 min) favor FSH release

C.Continuous GnRH administration preferentially releases FSH

D.GnRH pulse frequency does not affect FSH vs LH release

Explanation: GnRH pulse frequency differentially regulates gonadotropins: slow pulses (~90-120 min, follicular phase late and luteal) preferentially release FSH; fast pulses (~60 min, mid-follicular through ovulatory surge) preferentially release LH. Continuous GnRH (or long-acting agonists like leuprolide) causes initial flare followed by pituitary desensitization and suppression of both LH and FSH — basis for 'long agonist' protocols in IVF.

2Which ovarian hormone, produced by the corpus luteum, is primarily responsible for maintenance of early pregnancy until the luteoplacental shift occurs?

A.Estradiol

B.Progesterone (luteoplacental shift ~7-10 weeks gestation when placenta takes over)

C.Inhibin A

D.Activin B

Explanation: The corpus luteum produces progesterone, which is essential for endometrial maintenance and pregnancy support. The 'luteoplacental shift' (at ~7-10 weeks gestation) describes the transition where the placenta assumes progesterone production from the corpus luteum. Luteectomy before 10 weeks typically results in pregnancy loss; after this shift, the placenta can sustain the pregnancy. hCG maintains corpus luteum function until the shift is complete.

3The two-cell two-gonadotropin theory of estrogen synthesis in the ovary describes which steroidogenic pathway?

A.Theca cells use FSH to produce androgens, granulosa cells use LH to aromatize to estradiol

B.Theca cells use LH to produce androgens (testosterone, androstenedione), which diffuse to granulosa cells where FSH stimulates aromatase to convert androgens to estradiol

C.Granulosa cells produce androgens via LH, theca cells aromatize via FSH

D.All steroidogenesis occurs in a single cell type

Explanation: Two-cell, two-gonadotropin theory: THECA cells respond to LH to produce androgens (17-hydroxyprogesterone → androstenedione → testosterone) via CYP17 (17α-hydroxylase/17,20-lyase). Androgens diffuse to GRANULOSA cells where FSH induces aromatase (CYP19) to convert androgens to estrogens (androstenedione → estrone; testosterone → estradiol). The classical granulosa cell lacks CYP17, requiring thecal androgen substrate. This coordinated physiology underlies IVF stimulation protocols.

4Implantation of the human embryo occurs approximately how many days post-ovulation, and which endometrial window is critical?

A.Day 3 post-ovulation

B.Day 6-10 post-ovulation (implantation window, cycle days 20-24 in 28-day cycle); synchronized with secretory/luteal endometrium with pinopodes

C.Day 14 post-ovulation

D.Day 2 post-ovulation

Explanation: Implantation occurs during the 'window of implantation' at ~days 6-10 post-ovulation (cycle days ~20-24 in a 28-day cycle). During this luteal window the endometrium is in the mid-secretory phase — plasma-membrane transformations produce pinopodes (surface projections), leukemia inhibitory factor (LIF), and integrins that enable blastocyst attachment. Synchronization of embryo and endometrium is essential — basis for 'endometrial receptivity analysis' (ERA) in modern ART, though clinical utility debated.

5Anti-Müllerian hormone (AMH) is produced by which ovarian cell type and is a biomarker of what?

A.Theca cells; marker of androgen production

B.Granulosa cells of primordial follicles; marker of ovarian reserve (measured any cycle day, not cycle-dependent)

C.Granulosa cells of preantral and small antral follicles; marker of ovarian reserve (AMH is cycle-independent and predicts ovarian response to stimulation)

D.Luteal cells; marker of corpus luteum quality

Explanation: AMH is produced by granulosa cells of preantral and small antral follicles (NOT primordial or large antral). It reflects the growing follicular cohort and ovarian reserve. Unlike FSH, AMH is relatively cycle-independent (can be drawn any time). AMH <1.0 ng/mL suggests diminished ovarian reserve and predicts poor ovarian response to stimulation. AMH >3.5-4 is associated with PCOS and high-responder risk for OHSS. Note hormonal contraceptives modestly reduce AMH.

6The LH surge triggers which ovarian events leading to ovulation?

A.Only follicle rupture

B.Resumption of meiosis (oocyte progresses to metaphase II), luteinization of granulosa cells (conversion to progesterone production), and follicle rupture ~34-36 hours later

C.Only luteinization without meiotic resumption

D.Ovulation occurs spontaneously without LH surge

Explanation: The mid-cycle LH surge (initiated by rising estradiol via positive feedback) triggers: (1) resumption of meiosis — oocyte moves from prophase I arrest to metaphase II arrest (where it stays until fertilization); (2) luteinization — granulosa cells shift from predominantly estrogen production to progesterone; (3) follicle rupture ~34-36 hours after surge onset. This timing underlies IVF trigger: hCG 10,000 IU or GnRH agonist → oocyte retrieval 34-36 hours later.

7A 24-year-old with primary amenorrhea is found to have a 45,X karyotype, short stature, and streak ovaries. What is the expected FSH level and reproductive implications?

A.Low FSH due to hypothalamic etiology

B.Elevated FSH (hypergonadotropic hypogonadism from gonadal dysgenesis); oocyte donation required for pregnancy; high-risk cardiac workup (coarctation, aortic dilation) is essential before pregnancy

C.Normal FSH with normal ovarian function

D.Transient elevation that resolves with age

Explanation: Turner syndrome (45,X): gonadal dysgenesis → premature ovarian failure with elevated FSH (hypergonadotropic hypogonadism), streak ovaries, primary amenorrhea. Associated cardiovascular anomalies: bicuspid aortic valve (~30%), coarctation, aortic dilation with dissection risk in pregnancy (up to 2% maternal mortality). Pregnancy only possible with oocyte donation. PRE-PREGNANCY: echocardiogram, MRI/MRA aortic imaging; aortic root index >25 mm/m² or >20 mm/m² with risk factors = pregnancy contraindicated. Maternal mortality 0.5-2%, so cardiac clearance mandatory.

8A 22-year-old with primary amenorrhea presents with anosmia. Her FSH, LH, and estradiol are all low. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A.Kallmann syndrome (hypogonadotropic hypogonadism with anosmia; KAL1/ANOS1 most common; also FGFR1, PROKR2) — defect in GnRH neuron migration from olfactory placode

B.Asherman syndrome

C.Pituitary adenoma

D.Polycystic ovarian syndrome

Explanation: Kallmann syndrome: genetic hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (primary amenorrhea, low FSH/LH/E2) WITH anosmia or hyposmia. Caused by mutations (KAL1/ANOS1 X-linked recessive, FGFR1 AD, PROKR2, PROK2, others) affecting GnRH neuron migration from olfactory placode to hypothalamus during embryogenesis. Treatment: estrogen replacement, pulsatile GnRH or gonadotropins for fertility. Normal uterus and ovaries — pregnancy achievable with ovulation induction. Olfactory bulb MRI may show hypoplasia.

9A 26-year-old with oligomenorrhea has mildly elevated 17-hydroxyprogesterone (17-OHP) of 280 ng/dL on follicular phase morning blood draw. What is the next step to confirm or exclude non-classic (late-onset) congenital adrenal hyperplasia from 21-hydroxylase deficiency?

A.Begin hydrocortisone empirically

B.ACTH stimulation test with measurement of 17-OHP at 60 minutes — NCCAH diagnosis if post-stimulation 17-OHP ≥1000-1500 ng/dL

C.Start OCPs

D.Measure anti-Müllerian hormone

Explanation: Morning follicular-phase 17-OHP <200 ng/dL excludes NCCAH. 200-1000 ng/dL baseline is equivocal — confirm with ACTH (cosyntropin) stimulation test: 250 mcg IV, measure 17-OHP at 0 and 60 min. Post-stimulation 17-OHP ≥1000-1500 ng/dL confirms NCCAH (21-hydroxylase deficiency, CYP21A2 gene). Treatment: glucocorticoid replacement (hydrocortisone or prednisolone) to suppress androgens; OCPs for hyperandrogenic symptoms; counseling on inheritance (AR, carrier partner screening).

10A 28-year-old patient meets Rotterdam criteria for PCOS. Which of the following combinations is INSUFFICIENT for PCOS diagnosis?

A.Oligo-ovulation + hyperandrogenism (clinical or biochemical)

B.Oligo-ovulation + PCO morphology on ultrasound

C.Hyperandrogenism + PCO morphology on ultrasound

D.Polycystic ovarian morphology alone on ultrasound

Explanation: Rotterdam 2003 criteria (endorsed by ASRM/ESHRE): PCOS requires 2 of 3: (1) oligo- or anovulation, (2) clinical or biochemical hyperandrogenism, (3) polycystic ovarian morphology on ultrasound (≥12 follicles 2-9 mm per ovary or ovarian volume >10 mL). PCOM alone is insufficient (20% of women have PCO morphology without PCOS). Must exclude other causes (NCCAH, Cushing, hyperprolactinemia, thyroid, androgen-secreting tumors). Updated 2018 International Guidelines refine ultrasound criteria using high-resolution ultrasound thresholds.

About the ABOG Reproductive Endocrinology and Infertility Exam

The ABOG Reproductive Endocrinology and Infertility (REI) subspecialty certification is a two-step process administered by the American Board of Obstetrics and Gynecology. Step 1 is the Qualifying Examination — a computer-based multiple-choice written exam at Pearson VUE administered on July 20, 2026. Step 2 is the Certifying Examination — an oral exam in Dallas that includes thesis defense, case-list review, and structured cases. Under the revised AY2022-2023 standards, candidates complete an 18-month REI Core Clinical Experience within a 36-month ACGME-accredited REI fellowship, defend an approved thesis, and hold active ABOG Specialty certification. The QE blueprint follows the ABOG REI Qualifying Exam Blueprint with 10 content domains, while the CE blueprint redistributes question weights across the same domains.

Questions

200 scored questions

Time Limit

Approximately 4 hours (computer-based Qualifying Exam)

Passing Score

Criterion-referenced scaled passing standard (ABOG REI Division, modified Angoff)

Exam Fee

$2,195 QE application + $1,275 CE fee (ABOG 2026) (American Board of Obstetrics and Gynecology (ABOG) — Division of Reproductive Endocrinology and Infertility)

ABOG Reproductive Endocrinology and Infertility Exam Content Outline

15%

Basic Science, Physiology, and Pathophysiology

Hormone structure and signaling (GnRH, gonadotropins LH/FSH, steroidogenesis, HPO axis), clinical pharmacology of reproductive drugs (clomiphene, letrozole, gonadotropins, GnRH agonists/antagonists), laboratory assays, pathology of normal and abnormal reproductive tissues, implantation biology, embryogenesis of reproductive systems, gamete biology, pre-implantation embryo development.

10%

Diagnostic Techniques and Interpretation

Molecular biology (immunohistochemistry, PCR, endocrine assays), imaging (HSG for tubal patency, transvaginal ultrasound, saline infusion sonography/SIS, MRI for Müllerian anomalies), provocative testing (ACTH stimulation, dexamethasone suppression, clomiphene challenge), andrology including semen analysis per WHO 2021 criteria (concentration ≥16 M/mL, total motility ≥42%, normal morphology ≥4%) and DNA fragmentation testing.

15%

Reproductive Endocrine Function and Disease

Normal and abnormal puberty (Tanner staging, delayed/precocious puberty), menopause (FSH >25 IU/L + amenorrhea), neuroendocrine disorders (Kallmann syndrome with anosmia, Sheehan, panhypopituitarism), gonad disorders (Turner 45,X with elevated FSH, Swyer, DSD), thyroid and adrenal disorders, 21-hydroxylase deficiency (elevated 17-OHP), androgen disorders (PCOS, idiopathic hirsutism), amenorrhea workup, gender-affirming hormone therapy.

Female Fertility, Infertility, and PCOS

Comprehensive infertility workup (history, BMI, ovulatory function, tubal patency, ovarian reserve: AMH <1.0 ng/mL suggests diminished reserve, AFC <5-7), ovulation induction (letrozole first-line for PCOS per PPCOS II), controlled ovarian hyperstimulation, IUI, PCOS Rotterdam criteria (2 of 3: oligo/anovulation, hyperandrogenism, polycystic ovarian morphology), metabolic complications, third-party reproduction, LGBTQ+ family building, early pregnancy loss.

Male Infertility

Male infertility evaluation (history including varicocele, chronic disease, medications, environmental exposures, steroid use), semen analysis per WHO 2021, hormonal testing (FSH, LH, total T, prolactin), genetic testing (karyotype, Y-microdeletion, CFTR for CBAVD), diagnosis (endocrine, primary testicular, obstructive, idiopathic), non-surgical treatments (clomiphene, letrozole, hCG), surgical options (TESE, MESA, vasectomy reversal, varicocele repair), ICSI indications.

Recurrent Pregnancy Loss

RPL definition (ASRM 2020: two or more clinical pregnancy losses), causes and relative incidence (unexplained 50%, genetic/aneuploidy, anatomic, endocrine, APS with persistent LAC/aCL/anti-β2GP1 repeated at 12 weeks, immunologic, thrombophilia), workup, management (progesterone supplementation for luteal support, thyroid optimization, aspirin + LMWH for APS), PGT for balanced translocation carriers, counseling on euploid vs aneuploid loss.

Fertility Preservation

Indications (oncofertility before gonadotoxic therapy, elective oocyte cryopreservation, genetic conditions), diagnostic testing (AMH, AFC), counseling on options (oocyte/embryo cryopreservation, ovarian tissue cryopreservation, GnRH agonists during chemo), modifications to ART for cancer patients (letrozole/aromatase inhibitors to suppress estrogen in ER+ breast cancer, random start protocols to minimize delay), ovarian transposition before pelvic RT, fertility-sparing GYN surgery.

10%

Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART) Techniques

IVF stimulation protocols (long agonist, antagonist, microdose flare), trigger (hCG 10,000 IU or GnRH agonist for OHSS risk), transvaginal ultrasound-guided oocyte retrieval 34-36 hr post-trigger, ICSI indications, embryo culture (day 3 cleavage vs day 5-6 blastocyst), fresh vs frozen embryo transfer, luteal support (progesterone), OHSS prevention (antagonist protocol, GnRH agonist trigger, cabergoline), ultrasound-guided embryo transfer.

10%

Complex Reproductive Disorders

Endometriosis (ASRM staging I-IV, medical management with combined OCPs/progestins/GnRH analogs/elagolix, surgical excision vs ablation), pelvic pain and adhesive disease, leiomyomata (submucosal affecting implantation — myomectomy improves fertility, intramural controversial, subserosal no impact), Müllerian anomalies (ASRM 2021 classification: septate uterus — hysteroscopic metroplasty, bicornuate, unicornuate, didelphys, MRKH), Asherman syndrome (hysteroscopic lysis), ambiguous genitalia/DSD.

Complex Reproductive Surgical Procedures

Diagnostic and operative hysteroscopy (septum resection, polypectomy, submucosal myomectomy, IUA lysis), diagnostic and operative laparoscopy for endometriosis and adnexal pathology, tubal surgery for fertility restoration (tubal reversal, tuboplasty), abdominal myomectomy, laparotomy procedures, surgical management of Müllerian anomalies, vaginal septum excision, ovarian cystectomy, salpingectomy for hydrosalpinx before IVF.

10%

Genetics

Inheritance patterns (AD, AR, X-linked, mitochondrial), expanded carrier screening (ACMG recommendations), pre-implantation genetic testing — PGT-A (aneuploidy, trophectoderm biopsy day 5-6), PGT-M (monogenic, e.g., cystic fibrosis, sickle cell, BRCA), PGT-SR (structural rearrangements for translocation carriers), antenatal genetic testing (cfDNA, CVS 10-13 weeks, amniocentesis ≥15 weeks), counseling on genetic testing results as they relate to infertility diagnosis (e.g., fragile X premutation and POI).

10%

Core Competencies and Cross Content

Ethics and professionalism, patient safety (root cause analysis, time-outs, checklists), interpersonal communication with diverse populations, systems-based practice (cost-awareness, multidisciplinary team care), practice-based learning and improvement, evidence-based medicine (ERAS protocols), research methodology for thesis defense (study design, biostatistics: sensitivity/specificity/PPV/NPV, RR vs OR, NNT).

How to Pass the ABOG Reproductive Endocrinology and Infertility Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: Criterion-referenced scaled passing standard (ABOG REI Division, modified Angoff)
Exam length: 200 questions
Time limit: Approximately 4 hours (computer-based Qualifying Exam)
Exam fee: $2,195 QE application + $1,275 CE fee (ABOG 2026)

Keys to Passing

Complete 500+ practice questions
Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
Focus on highest-weighted sections
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

ABOG Reproductive Endocrinology and Infertility Study Tips from Top Performers

1Memorize PCOS Rotterdam criteria (2 of 3: oligo/anovulation, clinical or biochemical hyperandrogenism, polycystic ovarian morphology on ultrasound) — letrozole is first-line for ovulation induction per the PPCOS II trial, which showed higher live birth rates than clomiphene (27.5% vs 19.1%) in PCOS patients

2Know ovarian reserve markers: AMH <1.0 ng/mL suggests diminished ovarian reserve; AFC <5-7 follicles suggests poor response; day-3 FSH >10 IU/L is concerning; POI is defined as FSH >25 IU/L on two occasions ≥4 weeks apart PLUS amenorrhea before age 40

3Master WHO 2021 semen analysis lower reference limits: volume ≥1.4 mL, concentration ≥16 million/mL, total sperm ≥39 million, progressive motility ≥30%, total motility ≥42%, normal morphology ≥4% (strict Kruger)

4Learn the antiphospholipid syndrome criteria for recurrent pregnancy loss (Sapporo/Sydney): clinical criterion (≥3 consecutive pre-embryonic/early fetal losses, fetal death ≥10 weeks, or preterm birth <34 weeks from preeclampsia/placental insufficiency) PLUS laboratory criterion (persistent lupus anticoagulant, anticardiolipin IgG/IgM >40, or anti-β2-glycoprotein-I IgG/IgM >99th percentile, confirmed ≥12 weeks apart)

5Know OHSS prevention and management: use antagonist protocol with GnRH agonist trigger in high-responders (PCOS, high AMH, >15-20 follicles), cabergoline 0.5 mg daily x 8 days starting on trigger day, freeze-all with delayed transfer; severe OHSS features include hematocrit >45%, WBC >15k, ascites, pleural effusion, renal compromise, thromboembolism risk

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the ABOG Reproductive Endocrinology and Infertility subspecialty exam?

ABOG REI certification is a two-step voluntary subspecialty credential administered by the American Board of Obstetrics and Gynecology. Step 1 is the Qualifying Examination (QE), a computer-based multiple-choice written exam delivered at Pearson VUE testing centers. Step 2 is the Certifying Examination (CE), an oral exam at the ABOG National Center in Dallas that includes thesis defense, case-list review, and structured cases. The QE follows a 10-domain blueprint covering basic science, endocrine disease, infertility, ART, genetics, and reproductive surgery. Candidates must hold ABOG Specialty certification and complete an ACGME-accredited REI fellowship (36 months, with 18 months REI Core Clinical Experience under 2022-2023 standards).

How many questions are on the ABOG REI Qualifying Exam and how long is it?

The REI Qualifying Exam is a computer-based single-best-answer multiple-choice exam delivered at Pearson VUE over approximately 4 hours. The published ABOG REI QE Blueprint weights Basic Science/Physiology/Pathophysiology at 15%, Reproductive Endocrine Function and Disease at 15%, Diagnostic Techniques at 10%, Complex Reproductive Disorders at 10%, ART Techniques at 10%, Genetics at 10%, Core Competencies/Cross Content at 10%, Female Fertility/PCOS at 5%, Fertility Preservation at 5%, Complex Reproductive Surgery at 5%, Male Infertility at 3%, and Recurrent Pregnancy Loss at 2%.

What is the passing score for the ABOG REI exam?

Both the Qualifying and Certifying Examinations use criterion-referenced scaled passing standards set by the ABOG REI Division through a modified Angoff standard-setting process. Scores are not curved — candidates are measured against a content-expert performance standard. Reports include pass/fail plus diagnostic performance by content domain. Historical first-time REI QE pass rates run approximately 85-92% per the ABOG public pass-rate tool.

What are the eligibility requirements for ABOG REI certification?

Candidates must (1) hold active primary ABOG Specialty (OB-GYN) certification; (2) complete an ACGME-accredited REI fellowship — under the AY2022-2023 revised standards this is 36 months total with an 18-month REI Core Clinical Experience covering the expanded blueprint domains; (3) successfully defend an approved thesis before applying for the CE; (4) submit a compliant case list for the CE; and (5) maintain active, unrestricted medical licensure.

How much does the ABOG REI exam cost?

For 2026, the Subspecialty Qualifying Examination fee is $2,195 when applied for by February 15, 2026, with a $400 late fee if applied March 15 or earlier. The Certifying Examination fee is $1,275 when submitted July 1-31, 2026, with a $400 late fee for August submissions. CE application fee is additional ($1,125 on-time). These fees are set by ABOG and apply across all subspecialties.

When is the 2026 ABOG REI exam administered?

The 2026 Subspecialty Qualifying Examination is scheduled for July 20, 2026 at Pearson VUE testing centers. The 2026 Subspecialty Certifying Examination is administered in person at the ABOG National Center for Certification and Continuing Education in Dallas during exam weeks of October 5-8, November 2-5, November 16-19, and December 7-10, 2026. Candidates are assigned a specific week after application approval (by June 30, 2026).

What are the highest-yield topics on the ABOG REI exam?

High-yield topics include PCOS Rotterdam criteria (2 of 3: oligo/anovulation, hyperandrogenism, PCO morphology) with letrozole first-line for ovulation induction per PPCOS II, ovarian reserve testing (AMH <1.0 ng/mL suggesting DOR, AFC <5-7), WHO 2021 semen analysis thresholds, Kallmann syndrome (anosmia + hypogonadotropic hypogonadism from KAL1/ANOS1), Turner syndrome (45,X) workup with elevated FSH, premature ovarian insufficiency (FSH >25 IU/L on two occasions + amenorrhea before age 40), fragile X premutation and POI, OHSS prevention (antagonist protocol, agonist trigger), antiphospholipid syndrome workup for RPL (persistent LAC/aCL/anti-β2GP1 at 12 weeks), and Müllerian anomaly classification.

How should I study for the ABOG REI exam?

Use the ABOG REI QE Blueprint as your master syllabus and distribute study time by domain weight. Ground your review on ASRM practice committee documents, ACOG committee opinions, and the Speroff reference textbook. Master ovarian reserve testing, stimulation protocols (antagonist, long agonist, microdose flare), PGT-A/M/SR indications, endometriosis staging and management, Müllerian anomaly classification (ASRM 2021), PCOS Rotterdam criteria with letrozole-first induction, POI/DOR workup including fragile X, APS criteria for RPL, and fertility preservation protocols for oncofertility. Review statistics and study design for CE thesis defense.