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100+ Free ABOG OB/GYN Qualifying Exam Practice Questions

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A 32-year-old G2P1 at 28 weeks' gestation has a blood type of O-negative with a negative antibody screen and a partner who is Rh-positive. What is the standard dose of anti-D immune globulin (RhIg) that should be administered now?

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: ABOG OB/GYN Qualifying Exam Exam

~230

Multiple-Choice Questions

Single-best-answer format

3h 45m

Total Exam Duration

No scheduled breaks

$2,195

Standard Exam Fee

ABOG 2026 on-time application

33/33/33

Blueprint Weighting

OB / GYN / Office Practice

87%

Overall Pass Rate

2025 ABOG reported

July 20, 2026

2026 Test Date

Annual Pearson VUE administration

The ABOG Qualifying Exam is a ~3-hour-45-minute, ~230-question computer-based single-best-answer MCQ written boards offered annually (2026 test date: July 20). The 2026 blueprint is approximately 33% Obstetrics, 33% Gynecology, and 33% Office Practice / Cross-Content. Passing is criterion-referenced using a scaled cut-point established by periodic standard-setting. The 2026 standard exam fee is $2,195 ($2,595 with late fee through March 15). Recent overall pass rate is ~87% (first-time ~90%). Passing the QE is required before applying for the oral Certifying Exam.

Sample ABOG OB/GYN Qualifying Exam Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your ABOG OB/GYN Qualifying Exam exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 32-year-old G2P1 at 28 weeks' gestation has a blood type of O-negative with a negative antibody screen and a partner who is Rh-positive. What is the standard dose of anti-D immune globulin (RhIg) that should be administered now?
A.50 µg IM
B.300 µg IM
C.1,000 µg IV
D.No RhIg indicated until delivery
Explanation: An Rh-negative, antibody-negative pregnant patient receives 300 µg (1,500 IU) of anti-D RhIg IM at 28 weeks' gestation and again within 72 hours of delivery if the neonate is Rh-positive. This dose covers up to 30 mL of fetal whole blood (15 mL fetal RBCs). A 50 µg dose is only used for first-trimester events (before 12 weeks).
2A 29-year-old G1P0 at 38 weeks presents with BP 164/108 on two readings 15 minutes apart, severe headache, and proteinuria. In addition to prompt antihypertensive therapy, what is the initial seizure-prophylaxis regimen of choice?
A.Diazepam 10 mg IV bolus
B.Magnesium sulfate 4-6 g IV loading dose then 1-2 g/hour maintenance
C.Phenytoin 20 mg/kg IV
D.Levetiracetam 1 g IV
Explanation: For preeclampsia with severe features, magnesium sulfate is the agent of choice for eclampsia seizure prophylaxis: 4-6 g IV over 15-20 minutes as a loading dose, followed by a 1-2 g/hour continuous infusion. Benzodiazepines, phenytoin, and levetiracetam are inferior to magnesium for preventing eclamptic seizures. Monitor for loss of deep tendon reflexes, respiratory depression, and urine output <30 mL/hr — toxicity is reversed with calcium gluconate 1 g IV.
3At a routine 24-week visit, a patient undergoes a 1-hour 50-g glucose challenge test with a result of 152 mg/dL. What is the next best step?
A.Diagnose gestational diabetes and initiate insulin
B.Repeat the 50-g test in 4 weeks
C.Perform a 3-hour 100-g oral glucose tolerance test
D.No further testing — reassure the patient
Explanation: In the ACOG-endorsed two-step approach, a 1-hour 50-g glucose challenge test ≥130-140 mg/dL (threshold depends on institution; ≥140 is most common) is a positive screen that requires a diagnostic 3-hour 100-g OGTT. Diagnosis by Carpenter-Coustan requires ≥2 abnormal values among: fasting ≥95, 1-hour ≥180, 2-hour ≥155, 3-hour ≥140.
4A 34-year-old G3P2 at 30 weeks presents with painless vaginal bleeding. Ultrasound reveals a placenta covering the internal cervical os. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A.Immediate cesarean delivery regardless of maternal/fetal status
B.Admit for observation; avoid digital cervical exam; steroids if stable and preterm
C.Perform a digital cervical exam to assess dilation
D.Start magnesium sulfate and attempt induction of labor
Explanation: Placenta previa with painless third-trimester bleeding is managed with admission, no digital cervical exam (can provoke catastrophic hemorrhage), IV access and type-and-cross, antenatal corticosteroids if <34 weeks, and expectant management if mother and fetus are stable. Cesarean delivery is planned (typically 36 0/7-37 6/7 weeks for uncomplicated previa). Digital exams are contraindicated until previa is excluded.
5A multiparous patient in the second stage of labor develops shoulder dystocia after delivery of the fetal head. What is the FIRST maneuver recommended in the HELPERR mnemonic after calling for help?
A.McRoberts maneuver (maternal hyperflexion of the hips)
B.Zavanelli maneuver (cephalic replacement)
C.Symphysiotomy
D.Wood's corkscrew maneuver
Explanation: HELPERR: Help (call), Evaluate for episiotomy, Legs (McRoberts — maternal hip hyperflexion), Pressure (suprapubic, not fundal), Enter the pelvis (internal rotation maneuvers: Rubin, Wood's corkscrew), Remove posterior arm, Roll the patient (Gaskin all-fours). McRoberts combined with suprapubic pressure resolves the majority of shoulder dystocias. Zavanelli and symphysiotomy are last-resort maneuvers. Fundal pressure is contraindicated.
6A patient at 32 weeks' gestation presents in preterm labor with 4 cm dilation. In addition to a single course of betamethasone, which additional intervention should be considered to reduce long-term neurologic morbidity in the neonate?
A.Indomethacin tocolysis for 48 hours
B.Magnesium sulfate for fetal neuroprotection
C.Terbutaline SQ q4h
D.Nifedipine 30 mg PO once
Explanation: For anticipated preterm birth <32 weeks, magnesium sulfate (4-6 g IV load then 1-2 g/hr) is administered for fetal neuroprotection to reduce the risk of cerebral palsy in surviving preterm infants. Betamethasone is given for fetal lung maturity. Tocolytics (indomethacin <32 weeks, nifedipine 24-32 weeks) are used to delay delivery by 48 hours to allow steroid benefit, not for neuroprotection.
7A patient at 34 weeks reports a sudden gush of clear fluid per vagina. Speculum exam shows fluid pooling in the posterior fornix and a positive fern test. Nitrazine is positive. She is afebrile and the fetal heart rate is reassuring. What is the most appropriate management?
A.Immediate induction of labor
B.Expectant management with antibiotics (latency) and corticosteroids
C.Cerclage placement
D.Amnioinfusion and discharge home
Explanation: PPROM (preterm premature rupture of membranes) at 34 0/7 weeks or later: latency antibiotics and antenatal corticosteroids if not already given, with delivery typically at 34 0/7 weeks (ACOG now supports expectant management through 36 6/7 in select cases, though many still deliver at 34). Latency antibiotics are ampicillin + erythromycin (or azithromycin) × 7 days. Immediate cesarean is only for non-reassuring status, chorioamnionitis, or abruption.
8A category III fetal heart rate tracing is characterized by which of the following?
A.Moderate variability with occasional variable decelerations
B.Absent baseline variability with recurrent late decelerations, recurrent variable decelerations, or bradycardia, OR a sinusoidal pattern
C.Baseline of 160 with accelerations
D.Marked variability with early decelerations
Explanation: The NICHD 3-tier system defines Category III tracings as: absent baseline FHR variability with recurrent late decelerations, recurrent variable decelerations, or bradycardia; OR a sinusoidal pattern. Category III is predictive of abnormal fetal acid-base status and requires immediate intrauterine resuscitation (position change, O2, fluids, stop oxytocin, tocolytic for hyperstimulation) and expeditious delivery if not resolved.
9A 35-year-old G4P3 delivers vaginally at 39 weeks. Ten minutes after delivery of the placenta, she has brisk bleeding and a soft, boggy uterus. Vital signs: BP 98/60, HR 112. What is the first-line uterotonic after uterine massage?
A.Oxytocin (Pitocin) 10-40 units in 1 L of IV fluids
B.Misoprostol 800 µg rectally
C.Carboprost (Hemabate) 250 µg IM
D.Methylergonovine 0.2 mg IM
Explanation: For postpartum hemorrhage due to uterine atony (most common cause), first-line is uterine massage + oxytocin 10-40 units in 1 L crystalloid IV. If inadequate, the second-line agents include methylergonovine 0.2 mg IM q2-4h (avoid in hypertension/preeclampsia), carboprost 250 µg IM q15 min (max 8 doses; avoid in asthma), and misoprostol 800-1000 µg rectal or 600-800 µg sublingual. TXA 1 g IV should be given within 3 hours of PPH onset.
10Which patient is the BEST candidate for a trial of labor after cesarean (TOLAC)?
A.A patient with one prior low-transverse cesarean and a classical uterine incision
B.A patient with one prior low-transverse cesarean and prior successful vaginal delivery
C.A patient with two prior classical uterine incisions
D.A patient with a prior T-shaped incision
Explanation: TOLAC candidates should have one or two prior LOW-TRANSVERSE cesareans. A prior successful vaginal delivery (especially VBAC) is the strongest predictor of successful TOLAC. Classical (vertical) and T-shaped incisions are contraindications due to high uterine rupture risk (~4-9%) compared with <1% for low transverse. Adequate facilities for immediate cesarean must be available.

About the ABOG OB/GYN Qualifying Exam Exam

The ABOG Specialty Qualifying Examination (QE) is Step 1 of the two-step initial certification process for U.S. obstetrician-gynecologists. It is a single-best-answer multiple-choice exam administered annually at Pearson VUE test centers and evaluates foundational knowledge across obstetrics, gynecology, and office practice. Residency graduates must pass the QE to become eligible for Step 2 — the oral Certifying Examination (CE). The 2026 blueprint allocates approximately one-third each to Obstetrics, Gynecology, and Office Practice (with cross-content items). The QE covers antenatal care, intrapartum management, postpartum care, benign and malignant gynecologic disease, contraception, vulvovaginal and menstrual disorders, perioperative management, and preventive care.

Questions

230 scored questions

Time Limit

3 hours 45 minutes (no scheduled breaks)

Passing Score

Scaled score with criterion-referenced cut-point (standard-set every 3-5 years)

Exam Fee

$2,195 standard exam fee (ABOG 2026); $2,595 with late fee (American Board of Obstetrics and Gynecology (ABOG))

ABOG OB/GYN Qualifying Exam Exam Content Outline

33%

Obstetrics

Preconception counseling, antenatal care, aneuploidy screening (cfDNA, NT + PAPP-A/hCG), GDM screening (1-step 75g OGTT and 2-step 50g/100g), hypertensive disorders (preeclampsia with severe features, magnesium prophylaxis), placenta previa/accreta/abruption, preterm labor (tocolytics, betamethasone, magnesium for neuroprotection <32 weeks), PPROM, intrapartum fetal monitoring (NICHD 3-tier), shoulder dystocia, operative delivery, postpartum hemorrhage (oxytocin ladder, TXA, uterotonics), anti-D RhIg 300 µg IM at 28 weeks and postpartum.

33%

Gynecology

AUB (PALM-COEIN), fibroids/leiomyomata, endometriosis, chronic pelvic pain, ovarian masses (IOTA, O-RADS), ectopic pregnancy (methotrexate criteria vs surgical), pelvic organ prolapse (POP-Q staging), stress urinary incontinence, minimally invasive vs open hysterectomy, vaginal and abdominal surgical anatomy, perioperative VTE prophylaxis, gynecologic cancers (staging, screening, referral).

33%

Office Practice & Cross-Content

Cervical cancer screening guidelines, breast exam and mammography recommendations, contraception (US MEC Category 1-4), LARCs (copper/52mg LNG IUDs, etonogestrel implant), sterilization, menopause and hormone therapy, PCOS (Rotterdam), amenorrhea evaluation, vulvovaginitis (BV, candidiasis, trichomonas), STI screening and CDC 2021 treatment guidelines, preventive immunizations, ethics and informed consent.

How to Pass the ABOG OB/GYN Qualifying Exam Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Scaled score with criterion-referenced cut-point (standard-set every 3-5 years)
  • Exam length: 230 questions
  • Time limit: 3 hours 45 minutes (no scheduled breaks)
  • Exam fee: $2,195 standard exam fee (ABOG 2026); $2,595 with late fee

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

ABOG OB/GYN Qualifying Exam Study Tips from Top Performers

1Memorize preeclampsia severe-features criteria: BP ≥160/110 × 2 (≥4 hours apart), platelets <100k, AST/ALT ≥2× upper limit, creatinine >1.1 (or doubled), pulmonary edema, or new-onset cerebral/visual symptoms — magnesium 4-6 g IV load then 1-2 g/hr is seizure prophylaxis of choice
2Know the gestational diabetes 2-step thresholds (50g GCT ≥140 screen positive; 100g 3-hour Carpenter-Coustan: 95/180/155/140) and 1-step 75g OGTT (92/180/153) — two or more abnormal values diagnose GDM on the 3-hour test
3Master the NICHD 3-tier fetal heart tracing categories: Category I is reassuring, Category III is absent variability with recurrent late/variable decelerations OR bradycardia OR a sinusoidal pattern and requires immediate action (intrauterine resuscitation and often delivery), Category II is indeterminate and most common
4Methotrexate criteria for ectopic pregnancy: hemodynamically stable, unruptured, no fetal cardiac activity, adnexal mass <3.5 cm, hCG <5,000 IU/L (single-dose success ~88% if hCG <5,000; lower at higher levels); surgery for rupture, failed methotrexate, or contraindications
5Cervical cancer screening (2020 ACS/updated ACOG) favors primary HPV testing starting at 25 every 5 years (preferred) OR co-testing every 5 years OR cytology alone every 3 years — know HSIL/LSIL/ASC-H/ASC-US triage and management per ASCCP 2019 risk-based guidelines

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the ABOG Qualifying Examination?

The ABOG Qualifying Examination (QE) is a written, computer-based, single-best-answer multiple-choice exam that is Step 1 of the American Board of Obstetrics and Gynecology's two-step initial certification process. It evaluates foundational knowledge across obstetrics, gynecology, and office practice. Candidates must pass the QE before they can apply to sit for the oral Certifying Examination (CE). The exam is administered annually at Pearson VUE testing centers.

How many questions are on the ABOG QE and how long is it?

The exam contains approximately 230 single-best-answer multiple-choice questions and lasts approximately 3 hours and 45 minutes with no scheduled breaks. The 2026 blueprint allocates the content roughly 33% to Obstetrics, 33% to Gynecology, and 33% to Office Practice with cross-content items assessed within all three domains. The exam is delivered only in English.

What is the passing score for the ABOG Qualifying Exam?

ABOG reports a scaled test score and a pass/fail result. The cut-point is criterion-referenced and established through a standard-setting process every 3-5 years, with statistical equating used in intervening years. Candidates are measured against a fixed content-expert standard rather than curved against peers. Score reports include domain-level percentages for Obstetrics, Gynecology, and Office Practice.

When is the 2026 ABOG Qualifying Exam and what does it cost?

The 2026 ABOG QE is administered on July 20, 2026. Applications open January 7, 2026. The standard application window closes February 15, 2026 with an exam fee of $2,195; late applications are accepted through March 15, 2026 with an added $400 late fee (total $2,595). Fees are paid by credit card through the ABOG candidate portal.

What are the eligibility requirements for the ABOG QE?

Candidates must (1) hold an M.D. or D.O. degree from an accredited institution and (2) have completed an ACGME-accredited (or RCPSC Canada) residency in Obstetrics and Gynecology, verified by the Residency Training Affidavit submitted by the Program Director. A medical license is not required to sit for the QE, but any license held must be unrestricted. If residency completion is not confirmed by the following January 1, the exam result is voided.

What is the ABOG QE pass rate?

The 2025 overall pass rate was approximately 87% with first-time takers at approximately 90%. Pass rates historically range from 85-92% among first-time test takers. Repeat test takers have substantially lower pass rates. Candidates have up to eight years from residency completion to achieve certification before additional supervised practice is required to regain eligibility.

What are the highest-yield topics on the ABOG QE?

On the obstetrics side: NICHD 3-tier fetal heart monitoring, preeclampsia with severe features (BP ≥160/110, magnesium 4-6 g IV loading then 1-2 g/hr), GDM 75g OGTT thresholds (92/180/153), anti-D RhIg 300 µg IM at 28 weeks and postpartum, postpartum hemorrhage ladder (oxytocin, methylergonovine, carboprost, misoprostol, TXA), preterm labor (betamethasone 24-34 weeks, magnesium neuroprotection <32 weeks), and PPROM management. On gynecology: AUB PALM-COEIN, ectopic pregnancy methotrexate criteria (hCG <5,000, unruptured, <3.5 cm), ovarian mass O-RADS, POP-Q staging. On office practice: cervical cancer screening guidelines, US MEC for contraception, PCOS Rotterdam, STI CDC 2021 treatment.

How should I prepare for the ABOG Qualifying Exam?

Use a structured 6-12 month study plan during or after residency. Review the ABOG blueprint, use CREOG in-training exam performance to identify weak areas, and complete all six PROLOG volumes. Supplement with a high-yield Q-bank of at least 2,000 practice questions (aim for >3,000 before test day), board review video courses, and timed full-length mock exams. Emphasize decision-making — the exam rewards selecting the most correct action, not recalling facts. Integrate current guidelines: ACOG practice bulletins, SMFM consults, CDC STI 2021, US MEC for contraceptive use, and the 2026 ABOG blueprint.