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A 32-year-old G2P1 with a history of preeclampsia requiring preterm delivery at 33 weeks presents at 11 weeks for prenatal care. Based on USPSTF and ACOG recommendations, at what gestational age and dose should you start low-dose aspirin for preeclampsia prevention?

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: ABOG Maternal-Fetal Medicine Exam

200

Multiple-Choice Questions (QE)

ABOG Qualifying Exam at Pearson VUE

~4 hours

QE Computer-Based Duration

Single-best-answer MCQ format

$2,195

2026 QE Application Fee

ABOG Subspecialty Qualifying Exam

36 months

ACGME MFM Fellowship Length

AY2021 ABOG standards (18 months core clinical)

July 20, 2026

QE Exam Date

ABOG 2026 subspecialty schedule

2 steps

Qualifying + Certifying

Written MCQ, then oral exam in Dallas

ABOG MFM is a two-step subspecialty certification: a ~4-hour computer-based Qualifying Exam (single-best-answer MCQs at Pearson VUE on July 20, 2026) followed by an oral Certifying Examination in Dallas. Content is drawn from the MFM Guide to Learning and emphasizes obstetric complications (preterm birth, preeclampsia, diabetes, IUGR, multifetal gestation), fetal medicine (cfDNA/NIPT, anatomy ultrasound, fetal therapy), maternal medical/cardiac/critical care (sepsis, PAS, obstetric hemorrhage), and genetics. 2026 QE fee is $2,195; CE fee is $1,275. Passing is criterion-referenced; historical first-time pass rates run ~80-88%.

Sample ABOG Maternal-Fetal Medicine Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your ABOG Maternal-Fetal Medicine exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 32-year-old G2P1 with a history of preeclampsia requiring preterm delivery at 33 weeks presents at 11 weeks for prenatal care. Based on USPSTF and ACOG recommendations, at what gestational age and dose should you start low-dose aspirin for preeclampsia prevention?
A.Aspirin 81 mg daily starting at 12-16 weeks, continued through delivery
B.Aspirin 162 mg daily starting at 20 weeks
C.Aspirin 325 mg daily starting before 12 weeks
D.No aspirin indicated — reserve for history of ≥3 prior preeclampsia events
Explanation: USPSTF (2021) and ACOG recommend low-dose aspirin 81 mg daily starting between 12 and 16 weeks (ideally before 16 weeks) for any patient with ≥1 high-risk factor (prior preeclampsia, multifetal, chronic hypertension, diabetes, renal disease, autoimmune disease) or ≥2 moderate-risk factors. Continue through delivery. Starting after 16 weeks provides less benefit.
2A 28-year-old G1P0 at 34 weeks presents with BP 165/108, headache, and 3+ proteinuria. She has a seizure in triage. Which regimen is the first-line treatment for seizure prophylaxis and eclampsia treatment?
A.Phenytoin 1 g IV load then 100 mg IV q8h
B.Magnesium sulfate 4-6 g IV load over 20-30 minutes then 2 g/hr maintenance
C.Lorazepam 4 mg IV push, repeated PRN
D.Levetiracetam 1000 mg IV load
Explanation: MgSO4 is first-line for seizure prophylaxis and eclampsia treatment: 4-6 g IV load over 20-30 min, then 2 g/hr maintenance (1 g/hr if renal impairment). Continue for 24 hours postpartum or 24 hours after the last seizure. Signs of toxicity progress with serum level: loss of DTRs ~10 mg/dL, respiratory depression ~15 mg/dL, cardiac arrest >25 mg/dL. Antidote is calcium gluconate 1 g IV.
3A 26-year-old G2P1 at 28 weeks presents with regular contractions and cervical dilation 2 cm. Which antenatal corticosteroid regimen reduces neonatal respiratory distress syndrome?
A.Betamethasone 12 mg IM q24h for 2 doses
B.Dexamethasone 10 mg IV q12h for 4 doses
C.Hydrocortisone 100 mg IV q8h for 6 doses
D.Methylprednisolone 1 g IV x 1 dose
Explanation: ACOG and SMFM recommend betamethasone 12 mg IM q24h x 2 doses (or dexamethasone 6 mg IM q12h x 4 doses) for anticipated preterm birth 24 0/7 to 33 6/7 weeks. A single rescue course is recommended if >14 days have elapsed since the prior course, delivery is anticipated within 7 days, and gestational age <34 weeks. Late preterm (34 0/7 to 36 6/7) also benefits.
4A 30-year-old G1P0 with a singleton pregnancy and a short cervix of 18 mm discovered on transvaginal ultrasound at 20 weeks has no history of preterm birth. What is the recommended intervention?
A.Cervical cerclage placement
B.Vaginal progesterone 200 mg daily from diagnosis to 36 weeks
C.17-alpha-hydroxyprogesterone caproate (17-OHPC) IM weekly
D.Strict bed rest and pelvic rest
Explanation: For a singleton pregnancy with no prior preterm birth and a short cervix ≤25 mm before 24 weeks, vaginal progesterone (200 mg daily or 90 mg gel) reduces preterm birth risk. Cerclage is reserved for patients with BOTH a prior spontaneous preterm birth AND a short cervix <25 mm. 17-OHPC has been removed from the US market after the PROLONG trial failed to show benefit.
5A 34-year-old G3P2 at 31 weeks presents with contractions every 3-4 minutes. Her cervix is 3 cm dilated. In addition to antenatal corticosteroids, which agent reduces cerebral palsy risk in anticipated preterm delivery <32 weeks?
A.Nifedipine for tocolysis
B.Magnesium sulfate for fetal neuroprotection
C.Indomethacin for tocolysis
D.Terbutaline subcutaneous
Explanation: Magnesium sulfate for fetal neuroprotection is recommended when preterm delivery <32 weeks is anticipated within 24 hours. Typical regimen: 4-6 g IV load over 20-30 min then 1-2 g/hr for up to 12-24 hours. It reduces cerebral palsy in survivors. Tocolysis (nifedipine, indomethacin) delays delivery to complete steroids but does not improve fetal neurologic outcome.
6A 29-year-old G2P1 is diagnosed with gestational diabetes at 26 weeks after a 1-hour 50-g glucose challenge of 172 mg/dL followed by a 3-hour 100-g GTT with fasting 98, 1-hour 192, 2-hour 165, 3-hour 142 (Carpenter-Coustan). What is the initial management?
A.Immediate initiation of insulin based on weight
B.Lifestyle modification with medical nutrition therapy and self-monitored blood glucose
C.Glyburide 2.5 mg twice daily
D.Metformin 500 mg twice daily as first-line per ACOG
Explanation: Initial management of GDM is medical nutrition therapy and exercise with SMBG (fasting + 1-hour or 2-hour postprandial). Glycemic targets: fasting <95, 1-hour <140, 2-hour <120 mg/dL. If targets are not met after 1-2 weeks, pharmacotherapy is initiated — insulin is first-line per ACOG. Metformin and glyburide cross the placenta; long-term safety data are limited and both are second-line.
7A 36-year-old G4P3 with a history of three prior low-transverse cesarean deliveries undergoes ultrasound at 20 weeks showing an anterior placenta previa with loss of retroplacental clear zone, bridging vessels, and placental lacunae. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A.Vasa previa
B.Placental abruption
C.Placenta accreta spectrum
D.Succenturiate lobe
Explanation: Placenta accreta spectrum (PAS) risk factors: prior cesarean (risk scales with number — ~3% with 1 prior, up to 67% with ≥4 priors if placenta previa present). Ultrasound findings include loss of retroplacental clear (hypoechoic) zone, placental lacunae (Swiss-cheese), bridging vessels, bladder-serosa interface disruption. MRI supplements diagnosis. Delivery planning at 34-35 6/7 weeks with scheduled cesarean hysterectomy at a PAS center of excellence.
8A 27-year-old G1P0 at 39 weeks presents with sudden severe abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding. BP is 90/50, HR 125, fetal heart tracing shows late decelerations. The uterus is rigid and tender. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A.Placenta previa
B.Placental abruption
C.Uterine rupture
D.Vasa previa rupture
Explanation: Classic placental abruption presents with painful bleeding, uterine tenderness/rigidity ('board-like'), tachysystole, and non-reassuring FHT. Bleeding may be concealed (20%). Major risk factors: hypertension, cocaine use, trauma, smoking, prior abruption. Management: resuscitate, deliver if unstable or fetal distress. Placenta previa is painless bleeding. Uterine rupture typically has loss of station, fetal bradycardia, and prior uterine surgery history.
9A 33-year-old G2P1 with a monochorionic-diamniotic twin pregnancy at 20 weeks has ultrasound showing donor twin with oligohydramnios (MVP <2 cm) 'stuck twin' and recipient with polyhydramnios (MVP >8 cm). Neither twin has absent or reversed end-diastolic flow yet. What is the Quintero stage and recommended treatment?
A.Stage I — expectant management with weekly ultrasound
B.Stage II — fetoscopic laser photocoagulation of placental anastomoses
C.Stage III — selective fetal reduction
D.Stage IV — immediate delivery
Explanation: Quintero staging of TTTS: I — polyhydramnios/oligohydramnios sequence (donor bladder still visible); II — donor bladder no longer visible ('stuck twin'); III — abnormal Doppler (AREDV in UA, reversed a-wave in DV, or pulsatile UV); IV — hydrops in either twin; V — demise of one or both twins. Stage II or higher is treated with fetoscopic laser photocoagulation (Solomon technique) between 16-26 weeks — improves perinatal survival vs amnioreduction.
10A 38-year-old G3P2 at 38 weeks with chronic hypertension presents for induction. Intrapartum she develops BP 172/112 persistently. Which antihypertensive is first-line for acute severe hypertension in pregnancy?
A.IV labetalol 20 mg, hydralazine 5-10 mg IV, or oral immediate-release nifedipine 10 mg
B.IV enalaprilat 1.25 mg
C.Sublingual captopril 25 mg
D.IV sodium nitroprusside infusion
Explanation: ACOG-recommended first-line agents for acute severe intrapartum hypertension (sustained BP ≥160/110) are IV labetalol 20 mg (can escalate to 40, 80), IV hydralazine 5-10 mg, or oral immediate-release nifedipine 10 mg. Treat within 30-60 minutes. ACEi and ARBs are contraindicated in pregnancy (fetal renal agenesis/oligohydramnios). Nitroprusside risks cyanide toxicity and is reserved for refractory crises.

About the ABOG Maternal-Fetal Medicine Exam

The ABOG Maternal-Fetal Medicine (MFM) subspecialty certification is a two-step process administered by the American Board of Obstetrics and Gynecology. Step 1 is the Qualifying Examination — a computer-based multiple-choice written exam at Pearson VUE administered on July 20, 2026. Step 2 is the Certifying Examination — an oral exam in Dallas that includes thesis defense, case-list review, and structured cases. Candidates must have completed an ACGME-accredited MFM fellowship (now 36 months with 18 months core clinical including 2 months ICU, 2 months genetics/genomics, 2 months supervisory L&D), hold active ABOG Specialty certification, and successfully defend a thesis. Content follows the ABOG MFM Blueprint (Guide to Learning) and emphasizes management of complex maternal and fetal conditions.

Questions

200 scored questions

Time Limit

Approximately 4 hours (computer-based Qualifying Exam)

Passing Score

Criterion-referenced scaled passing standard (ABOG MFM Division, modified Angoff)

Exam Fee

$2,195 QE application + $1,275 CE fee (ABOG 2026) (American Board of Obstetrics and Gynecology (ABOG) — Division of Maternal-Fetal Medicine)

ABOG Maternal-Fetal Medicine Exam Content Outline

25%

Obstetric Complications (Antepartum, Intrapartum, Postpartum)

Preterm labor and PPROM (17-OHPC, cervical cerclage, tocolysis, betamethasone 12 mg IM q24h x 2, magnesium neuroprotection for <32 weeks), hypertensive disorders (low-dose aspirin 81 mg starting ≤16 weeks, preeclampsia with severe features, HELLP, MgSO4 4-6 g load then 2 g/hr, eclampsia), diabetes in pregnancy (pregestational vs GDM, IADPSG criteria), IUGR/FGR, oligohydramnios/polyhydramnios, multifetal gestation (monochorionicity, TTTS Quintero staging, TAPS), placenta accreta spectrum, obstetric hemorrhage, post-term.

20%

Fetal Medicine, Imaging, and Therapy

First-trimester screening (NT, PAPP-A, hCG), cfDNA/NIPT (detection rate ≥99% for T21), quad screen, detailed anatomy ultrasound (18-22 weeks), fetal echocardiography, Doppler (MCA PSV for anemia, umbilical artery for FGR, ductus venosus), hydrops fetalis (immune vs non-immune, parvovirus B19), fetal arrhythmias, fetal growth restriction, open and fetoscopic fetal surgery (MMC, TTTS laser, FETO for CDH), invasive diagnosis (CVS 10-13 weeks, amniocentesis ≥15 weeks).

15%

Maternal Medical Conditions

Cardiac disease in pregnancy (mWHO classes, peripartum cardiomyopathy, arrhythmias, pulmonary hypertension), VTE (LMWH, antepartum/postpartum thromboprophylaxis), thyroid disease (subclinical hypothyroid, Graves), renal disease, autoimmune (SLE, APS with LAC/anti-β2GP1/ACA), sickle cell, hepatic disease (ICP with bile acids ≥40, AFLP), neurologic disorders (seizure meds, MS), infectious disease (CMV, toxoplasma, Zika, HIV, syphilis, parvovirus, GBS), obesity, transplant.

15%

Genetics, Genomics, and Prenatal Diagnosis

Inheritance patterns (autosomal dominant/recessive, X-linked, mitochondrial), expanded carrier screening, aneuploidy screening (T21, T18, T13, 45,X, sex-chromosome), microarray vs karyotype, WES, cfDNA limitations (confined placental mosaicism, vanishing twin, BMI), single-gene disorders (sickle cell, CF, Tay-Sachs, fragile X), teratogens (ACEi, warfarin, valproate, isotretinoin, methotrexate, lithium), recurrent pregnancy loss genetics.

10%

Critical Care Obstetrics and Resuscitation

ICU admission criteria, septic shock (qSOFA, Surviving Sepsis bundle, empiric antibiotics, lactate), ARDS management in pregnancy (low tidal volume 6 mL/kg IBW, permissive hypercapnia), maternal cardiac arrest (resuscitative hysterotomy within 4-5 min if >20 weeks and no ROSC), massive transfusion (1:1:1 ratio), amniotic fluid embolism, trauma in pregnancy, venous access/central lines, hemodynamic monitoring, vasopressors (norepinephrine first-line).

10%

Ultrasound and Procedural Skills

First/second/third-trimester ultrasound, transvaginal cervical length (<25 mm at 18-24 weeks), biophysical profile (modified BPP with AFI + NST), AFI vs single deepest pocket, MCA PSV >1.5 MoM for anemia, growth biometry, CVS (10-13 weeks), amniocentesis (≥15 weeks, post-procedure loss ~0.1-0.3%), PUBS/cordocentesis, fetal transfusion, intrauterine shunting, amnioinfusion/amnioreduction.

5%

Research, Statistics, and Thesis

Study design (RCT, cohort, case-control, cross-sectional), sensitivity/specificity, PPV/NPV (prevalence-dependent), relative risk vs odds ratio, NNT, types of bias (selection, information, confounding), systematic review and meta-analysis, STROBE/CONSORT reporting guidelines, ABOG thesis requirements, IRB and ethics, survey methodology (≥50% response for questionnaire-based studies).

How to Pass the ABOG Maternal-Fetal Medicine Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Criterion-referenced scaled passing standard (ABOG MFM Division, modified Angoff)
  • Exam length: 200 questions
  • Time limit: Approximately 4 hours (computer-based Qualifying Exam)
  • Exam fee: $2,195 QE application + $1,275 CE fee (ABOG 2026)

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

ABOG Maternal-Fetal Medicine Study Tips from Top Performers

1Memorize low-dose aspirin dosing for preeclampsia prevention: 81 mg daily started between 12 and 16 weeks (ideally before 16 weeks) for any patient with one major risk factor or two moderate risk factors per USPSTF/ACOG 2021 — continue through delivery
2Know the MgSO4 regimens cold: 4-6 g IV load over 20-30 min then 2 g/hr maintenance for seizure prophylaxis in preeclampsia with severe features, continued 24 hours postpartum; and for fetal neuroprotection in imminent preterm birth <32 weeks — calcium gluconate is the antidote for toxicity (loss of DTRs at 10 mg/dL, respiratory depression at 15 mg/dL, cardiac arrest >25 mg/dL)
3Master betamethasone (12 mg IM q24h x 2 doses) for anticipated preterm birth 24 0/7 to 33 6/7 weeks; a single rescue course is recommended if prior course was ≥14 days ago and delivery expected within 7 days (ACOG/SMFM)
4Know cfDNA/NIPT performance: detection rate ≥99% for Trisomy 21 with false-positive <0.1%, but confined placental mosaicism, vanishing twin, and maternal BMI (reduced fetal fraction) are key failure modes — always confirm positive cfDNA with diagnostic testing (CVS or amniocentesis) before termination
5Memorize monochorionic twin surveillance: ultrasound every 2 weeks starting at 16 weeks; TTTS Quintero stage I (polyhydramnios/oligohydramnios) through V (fetal demise); stage ≥II management with fetoscopic laser photocoagulation typically between 16-26 weeks — TAPS diagnosed by MCA PSV >1.5 MoM in donor and <1.0 MoM in recipient

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the ABOG Maternal-Fetal Medicine subspecialty exam?

ABOG MFM certification is a two-step voluntary subspecialty credential administered by the American Board of Obstetrics and Gynecology. Step 1 is the Qualifying Examination (QE), a computer-based multiple-choice written exam delivered at Pearson VUE testing centers. Step 2 is the Certifying Examination (CE), an oral exam administered at the ABOG National Center in Dallas that includes thesis defense, case-list review, and structured case discussion. Candidates must hold primary ABOG Specialty (OB-GYN) certification, complete an ACGME-accredited MFM fellowship (36 months total with 18 months core clinical including ICU, genetics, and supervisory L&D experiences), and successfully defend a thesis before sitting for the CE.

How many questions are on the ABOG MFM Qualifying Exam and how long is it?

The MFM Qualifying Exam is a computer-based single-best-answer multiple-choice exam delivered at Pearson VUE over approximately 4 hours. Content is drawn from the ABOG MFM Blueprint (Guide to Learning) and covers obstetric complications, fetal medicine and imaging, maternal medical conditions, genetics and genomics, critical care obstetrics, ultrasound and procedural knowledge, and research methods. The 2026 QE is administered on July 20, 2026.

What is the passing score for the ABOG MFM exam?

Both the Qualifying and Certifying Examinations use criterion-referenced scaled passing standards set by the ABOG MFM Division through a modified Angoff standard-setting process. Scores are not curved against peers — candidates are measured against a content-expert performance standard. Score reports include pass/fail plus diagnostic performance by content domain. Historical first-time MFM QE pass rates run approximately 80-88% per the ABOG public pass-rate tool.

What are the eligibility requirements for ABOG MFM certification?

Candidates must (1) hold active primary ABOG Specialty (OB-GYN) certification; (2) complete an ACGME-accredited Maternal-Fetal Medicine fellowship — under the AY2021 revised standards this is 36 months total with 18 months of MFM core clinical experience (including 2 months of genetics/genomics, 2 months of supervisory L&D, and 1 month of ICU); (3) successfully defend an approved thesis before applying for the CE; (4) submit a compliant case list for the CE; and (5) maintain active, unrestricted medical licensure.

How much does the ABOG MFM exam cost?

For 2026, the Subspecialty Qualifying Examination fee is $2,195 when applied for by February 15, 2026, with a $400 late fee if applied March 15 or earlier (total $2,595). The Certifying Examination fee is $1,275 when submitted July 1-31, 2026, with a $400 late fee for August submissions (total $1,675). These fees are set by ABOG and apply across subspecialties. The CE application fee is additional ($1,125 standard; $1,525 with late fee).

When is the 2026 ABOG MFM exam administered?

The 2026 Subspecialty Qualifying Examination is scheduled for July 20, 2026 at Pearson VUE testing centers. The 2026 Subspecialty Certifying Examination is administered in person at the ABOG National Center for Certification and Continuing Education in Dallas during exam weeks of October 5-8, November 2-5, November 16-19, and December 7-10, 2026. Candidates are assigned to one week after application approval (by June 30, 2026).

What are the highest-yield topics on the ABOG MFM exam?

High-yield topics include preeclampsia prophylaxis with low-dose aspirin 81 mg starting ≤16 weeks for high-risk patients (USPSTF/ACOG), magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis (4-6 g load then 2 g/hr) and neuroprotection (<32 weeks), betamethasone 12 mg IM q24h x 2 for lung maturity, cfDNA/NIPT performance (≥99% T21 detection, limitations from vanishing twin/BMI/CPM), monochorionic twin complications (TTTS Quintero staging, TAPS, sFGR), placenta accreta spectrum diagnosis and delivery planning, obstetric hemorrhage/massive transfusion (1:1:1), maternal cardiac disease (mWHO classification), and perinatal infections (CMV, Zika, GBS, syphilis).

How should I study for the ABOG MFM exam?

Use a structured plan during fellowship with focused review in the final 6-9 months before the QE. Start with the ABOG MFM Guide to Learning to understand expected content. Anchor your review on ACOG Practice Bulletins, SMFM Consult Series, and current ACOG/SMFM committee opinions. Master core protocols: preeclampsia with severe features, PPROM, betamethasone/magnesium dosing, cfDNA interpretation, monochorionic twin surveillance, placenta accreta spectrum delivery planning, and critical care obstetrics (sepsis, ARDS, maternal cardiac arrest with resuscitative hysterotomy). Complete thousands of practice questions across all blueprint domains and review statistics/research methods for both QE and CE thesis defense.