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Which ICD-10-CM code reports an encounter for general adult medical examination without abnormal findings?

A
B
C
D
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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: CFPC Exam

150

Total Items

AAPC

5h 40m

Exam Time

AAPC

$299

AAPC Member Fee

AAPC

G0438/G0439

Medicare AWV Codes

Initial / Subsequent

The AAPC CFPC consists of 150 MCQ items over 5h40m with 70% passing. Fee $299 AAPC member. Master 2021 office E/M, preventive services (G0438/G0439 AWV), vaccine admin (90460/90461 with counseling vs 90471/90472 without), CCM/TCM care management, and chronic disease ICD-10-CM with the 'with' guideline.

Sample CFPC Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your CFPC exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1An established patient presents to her family physician for follow-up of hypertension and type 2 diabetes. The physician reviews home BP logs, adjusts lisinopril, refills metformin, and orders a basic metabolic panel. Total time spent on the date of encounter is 22 minutes. Based on time, what is the correct E/M code?
A.99212
B.99213
C.99214
D.99215
Explanation: Per 2021 E/M guidelines, established patient office visit time ranges are: 99212 (10-19 min), 99213 (20-29 min), 99214 (30-39 min), 99215 (40-54 min). Wait — 22 minutes falls into 99213 (20-29 min). However, MDM also supports 99214: two stable chronic illnesses + prescription drug management = moderate MDM. When time is the basis for selection, 22 minutes = 99213. The question states 'based on time,' so 99213 is correct.
2A new patient is seen for evaluation of fatigue. The physician documents a comprehensive history, performs a detailed exam, orders CBC, TSH, and CMP, and assesses moderate complexity MDM with two stable chronic illnesses (HTN, hyperlipidemia) and one new problem (fatigue, undiagnosed). Total time is 35 minutes. Which CPT code is reported?
A.99202
B.99203
C.99204
D.99205
Explanation: For new patient office visits (2021 guidelines), 99204 requires moderate MDM OR 45-59 minutes. The MDM here is moderate (multiple stable chronic + one new undiagnosed problem + ordering tests + prescription management would be moderate complexity). 99204 is supported by MDM regardless of the 35-minute time (which falls below 99204's time threshold but MDM alone qualifies).
3Which code reports a Medicare Initial Annual Wellness Visit (AWV)?
A.G0402
B.G0438
C.G0439
D.99387
Explanation: G0438 is the Medicare Initial Annual Wellness Visit, billed once in a beneficiary's lifetime after their first 12 months of Part B coverage. G0439 is for subsequent AWVs. G0402 is the 'Welcome to Medicare' Initial Preventive Physical Examination (IPPE), available only in the first 12 months of Part B.
4A 4-year-old established patient receives her annual preventive medicine visit and the MMR vaccine. The physician personally counsels the parent about vaccine risks/benefits. Which administration code applies to the MMR?
A.90471
B.90460
C.90461
D.90472
Explanation: CPT 90460 reports immunization administration through age 18 with counseling by the physician/QHP, FIRST or only component of each vaccine. MMR is a single combination vaccine product; report 90460 once for the first component plus 90461 for each additional component (×2 for measles, mumps, rubella combined = 90460 + 90461 × 2). 90471/90472 are admin codes WITHOUT counseling and apply when patients are 19+ or no counseling occurs.
5A 55-year-old presents for an established patient preventive visit. During the visit, the physician also evaluates and adjusts treatment for newly worsening asthma, performing a separate problem-focused E/M. Which modifier should be appended to the problem-oriented E/M code?
A.Modifier 24
B.Modifier 25
C.Modifier 57
D.Modifier 59
Explanation: Modifier 25 indicates a significant, separately identifiable E/M service by the same physician on the same day as another procedure or service. When a problem-oriented E/M is provided in addition to a preventive medicine service, modifier 25 is appended to the problem-oriented E/M (e.g., 99214-25 with 99396).
6A patient presents with a 2 cm sebaceous cyst on the back. The physician performs incision and drainage. Which CPT code is reported?
A.10040
B.10060
C.10061
D.11400
Explanation: CPT 10060 reports incision and drainage of an abscess (carbuncle, suppurative hidradenitis, cutaneous or subcutaneous abscess, cyst, furuncle, or paronychia); simple or single. 10061 is reported for complicated or multiple. 10040 is acne surgery. 11400 is excision (not I&D) of benign lesion.
7A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus with diabetic chronic kidney disease, stage 3, has which correct ICD-10-CM code combination?
A.E11.9 + N18.9
B.E11.22 + N18.30
C.E11.21 + N18.3
D.E11.65 + N18.3
Explanation: E11.22 (Type 2 diabetes mellitus with diabetic chronic kidney disease) is reported with an additional code from N18 to identify the stage of CKD. As of FY 2023, N18.3 was expanded to N18.30, N18.31, N18.32. N18.30 = CKD stage 3 unspecified. So E11.22 + N18.30 is the correct combination per ICD-10-CM guidelines.
8A physician performs a 12-lead ECG with interpretation and report in the office. The clinic owns the ECG equipment. Which code is reported?
A.93000
B.93005
C.93010
D.93015
Explanation: 93000 is the global code for ECG, routine, with at least 12 leads; with interpretation and report. It is reported when the same provider/facility owns the equipment AND interprets. 93005 is tracing only (technical), 93010 is interpretation and report only (professional). 93015 is a cardiovascular stress test (different procedure).
9Which CPT code reports a smoking cessation counseling visit lasting 5 minutes?
A.99406
B.99407
C.99408
D.99411
Explanation: 99406 is smoking and tobacco-use cessation counseling visit, intermediate, greater than 3 minutes up to 10 minutes. 99407 is intensive, greater than 10 minutes. A 5-minute counseling session falls within 99406. Note: counseling 3 minutes or less is bundled into the E/M.
10A family physician performs a knee joint injection (intermediate joint) of triamcinolone for osteoarthritis. Which CPT code reports the injection?
A.20600
B.20605
C.20610
D.20611
Explanation: CPT 20610 is arthrocentesis, aspiration and/or injection, MAJOR joint or bursa (e.g., shoulder, hip, knee, subacromial bursa); without ultrasound guidance. The knee is a major joint. 20611 includes ultrasound guidance. 20600/20605 are for small/intermediate joints.

About the CFPC Exam

AAPC specialty credential for family practice coders. Validates expertise in office E/M (heavy 2021 revision focus), preventive services and Medicare AWV (G0438/G0439), common FP procedures (skin, joint injection, IUD, Nexplanon, spirometry, EKG), vaccine administration coding (90460/90461 vs 90471/90472 — heavily tested), chronic disease ICD-10-CM, and care management codes (CCM 99490, TCM 99495/99496).

Questions

150 scored questions

Time Limit

5 hours 40 minutes

Passing Score

70%

Exam Fee

$299 AAPC member (AAPC)

CFPC Exam Content Outline

25%

E/M Office/Outpatient (heavy FP volume)

2021 revision MDM- or time-based; new vs established; modifier 25

15%

Preventive Services and Wellness

99381-99397 well visits by age; G0438/G0439 Medicare AWV; G0402 IPPE

20%

Common Procedures in Family Practice

Joint injection 20600-20611, IUD 58300, Nexplanon 11981/11982, spirometry, EKG

15%

ICD-10-CM Common FP Diagnoses

I10 HTN, E11.x DM, J45.x asthma, J44.x COPD, F32.x depression

10%

Vaccines and Immunizations

90460/90461 admin with counseling <19 vs 90471/90472 without; product codes

15%

Modifiers, Compliance and Payer Rules

25, 24, 33 preventive, 95 telehealth, GA/GZ ABN, MIPS measures

How to Pass the CFPC Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 70%
  • Exam length: 150 questions
  • Time limit: 5 hours 40 minutes
  • Exam fee: $299 AAPC member

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

CFPC Study Tips from Top Performers

1Master vaccine admin: 90460/90461 with counseling <19; 90471/90472 without counseling or 19+; count immunizing components for combination vaccines
2Know AWV requirements (G0438/G0439): Health Risk Assessment, cognitive assessment, list of providers, screening schedule, advance care planning option
3Memorize 'with' guideline: ICD-10-CM presumes link between conditions joined by 'with' in alphabetic index unless documented as unrelated. E.g., diabetes 'with' chronic kidney disease = E11.22 + N18.x even without explicit link
4Understand MIPS measures common to FP: CMS122 A1c >9% (poor control), CMS165 BP control HTN, CMS125 BCS, CMS124 cervical screening

Frequently Asked Questions

When do I use 90460/90461 vs 90471/90472 for vaccines?

Use 90460 (first vaccine/toxoid component) and 90461 (each addt'l component) when admin is to a patient under 19 AND counseling is provided by physician/QHP. Use 90471 (first) and 90472 (each addt'l) when patient is 19+ OR no counseling for under-19 OR a non-physician/QHP administered. Combination vaccines: count each immunizing component (e.g., MMR = 3 components; with counseling under 19 = 90460 + 90461 × 2).

What's the difference between AWV and IPPE?

G0402 IPPE (Initial Preventive Physical Exam, aka 'Welcome to Medicare') is available ONLY in the first 12 months of Part B Medicare enrollment. G0438 (initial AWV) and G0439 (subsequent AWV) are annual Medicare Annual Wellness Visits, both covered indefinitely. AWV requires Health Risk Assessment + cognitive assessment. AWV is NOT a head-to-toe physical exam (Medicare doesn't cover that).

What is Chronic Care Management (CCM)?

CCM codes (99490, 99491, 99437, 99439, 99487, 99489) compensate non-face-to-face management of patients with 2+ chronic conditions expected to last ≥12 months. 99490 = 20 min/mo by clinical staff; 99491 = 30 min by physician/QHP; 99487 = 60 min complex CCM with care plan establishment. Patient must be enrolled with consent.