Free USMLE Step 1 Exam Flashcards
Memorize 50 essential terms and definitions for the United States Medical Licensing Examination Step 1. See the term, recall the definition, then flip to check yourself.
Which bilirubin-processing enzyme is deficient in Gilbert syndrome and Crigler-Najjar syndrome?
UDP-glucuronosyltransferase. Low activity impairs hepatic conjugation of bilirubin, producing unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. Hemolysis can also raise indirect bilirubin, but the primary conjugation defect is in this enzyme.
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About These USMLE Step 1 Flashcards
These 50 flashcards are designed to help you memorize key terms and definitions for the United States Medical Licensing Examination Step 1. Each card shows a term on the front and its definition on the back—the classic flashcard format for vocabulary memorization. Use these alongside our practice questions to build both recall and comprehension.
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Review every term in this set. Open any term to reveal its definition.
Which bilirubin-processing enzyme is deficient in Gilbert syndrome and Crigler-Najjar syndrome?
UDP-glucuronosyltransferase. Low activity impairs hepatic conjugation of bilirubin, producing unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. Hemolysis can also raise indirect bilirubin, but the primary conjugation defect is in this enzyme.
What is the enzyme defect and dietary treatment in classic phenylketonuria?
Phenylalanine hydroxylase deficiency, most often. Treat with phenylalanine restriction and adequate tyrosine, because tyrosine becomes conditionally essential when phenylalanine cannot be converted efficiently.
Which glycogen storage disease causes severe fasting hypoglycemia, lactic acidosis, hyperuricemia, and hepatomegaly?
Von Gierke disease, caused by glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency. The liver cannot release free glucose from glycogenolysis or gluconeogenesis, so fasting produces marked hypoglycemia.
Which enzyme is deficient in classic galactosemia?
Galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase. Infants exposed to lactose can develop vomiting, jaundice, hepatomegaly, cataracts, and developmental injury unless galactose and lactose are removed from the diet.
Which vitamin-derived cofactor is required by pyruvate dehydrogenase?
Thiamine pyrophosphate from vitamin B1. Pyruvate dehydrogenase also uses lipoic acid, CoA, FAD, and NAD+, but thiamine deficiency is the classic Step 1 anchor for impaired pyruvate to acetyl-CoA conversion.
What is the rate-limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis and what drug class targets it?
HMG-CoA reductase is the rate-limiting enzyme, and statins inhibit it. The consequence is decreased hepatic cholesterol synthesis and increased LDL receptor expression.
What genetic mechanism causes fragile X syndrome?
CGG trinucleotide repeat expansion in the FMR1 gene on the X chromosome. Expansion causes methylation and reduced FMR1 expression, classically producing inherited intellectual disability, long face, large ears, and macroorchidism in males.
How do Prader-Willi and Angelman syndromes differ at chromosome 15q11-q13?
Prader-Willi results from loss of paternal expression; Angelman results from loss of maternal expression. Prader-Willi classically features hypotonia followed by hyperphagia, while Angelman features severe developmental delay, seizures, ataxia, and frequent laughter.
Which proliferative signaling pathway is typically downstream of receptor tyrosine kinases?
The Ras-MAPK pathway. Receptor tyrosine kinase activation commonly promotes growth and proliferation through Ras, while cAMP, IP3, and nitric oxide are anchors for other receptor systems.
What does p53 do after DNA damage?
p53 promotes cell-cycle arrest, DNA repair, and apoptosis when damage is severe. Loss of p53 removes a major checkpoint and allows damaged cells to keep dividing.
What is the core defect in chronic granulomatous disease?
Defective NADPH oxidase impairs the respiratory burst. Neutrophils cannot generate superoxide efficiently, leading to recurrent infections with catalase-positive organisms and granuloma formation.
What immune defect follows thymic aplasia in DiGeorge syndrome?
T-cell deficiency. Failed development of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches can cause thymic aplasia, hypocalcemia from parathyroid hypoplasia, and conotruncal cardiac defects.
Which SCID form is caused by IL2RG mutation and how is it inherited?
X-linked recessive SCID due to common gamma chain mutation. It disrupts multiple interleukin receptor signals, causing severe T-cell and NK-cell dysfunction with profound susceptibility to infection.
What cell and antibody drive type I hypersensitivity reactions?
IgE bound to mast cells. Re-exposure cross-links IgE, triggering mast-cell degranulation and release of mediators that cause urticaria, bronchospasm, hypotension, or anaphylaxis.
Deficiency of terminal complement components C5-C9 predisposes to which infections?
Recurrent Neisseria infections. The terminal complement pathway forms the membrane attack complex, which is especially important for defense against encapsulated Neisseria species.
What is the adhesion defect in leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1?
Defective CD18 integrins. Neutrophils cannot adhere and migrate into tissue effectively, causing recurrent bacterial infections, impaired pus formation, poor wound healing, and delayed umbilical cord separation.
Which MHC class presents antigen to CD4 helper T cells?
MHC class II presents extracellular antigen to CD4 T cells. MHC class I presents intracellular antigen to CD8 cytotoxic T cells, so the class tells you both the source of antigen and the responding T-cell type.
Which Staphylococcus aureus feature distinguishes it from coagulase-negative staphylococci?
Coagulase positivity. S. aureus is catalase positive and coagulase positive, helping it form fibrin barriers around infection; coagulase-negative staphylococci include S. epidermidis and S. saprophyticus.
Which two lab anchors help identify Streptococcus pneumoniae?
Optochin sensitivity and bile solubility. S. pneumoniae is an encapsulated, alpha-hemolytic, lancet-shaped diplococcus that commonly causes pneumonia, meningitis, otitis media, and sinusitis.
What is the classic cause of multiple ring-enhancing brain lesions in AIDS with CD4 count below 100?
Toxoplasma gondii. It often causes focal neurologic deficits and multiple lesions, especially in the basal ganglia. Primary CNS lymphoma is an important differential but is usually solitary.
Which hepatitis B viral protein is linked to hepatocellular carcinoma risk?
HBx protein. It can disrupt tumor-suppressor control and promote oncogenic signaling, while chronic inflammation and regeneration from persistent HBV infection add additional cancer risk.
Which HIV cell target explains progressive loss of adaptive immune coordination?
CD4 T helper cells. HIV entry depends on CD4 plus a chemokine coreceptor such as CCR5 or CXCR4, and CD4 decline weakens macrophage activation, B-cell help, and cytotoxic T-cell responses.
What type of necrosis is classically found in tuberculosis granulomas?
Caseating necrosis. TB often produces granulomas with central cheese-like necrosis, reflecting a type IV hypersensitivity response organized by T cells and activated macrophages.
Which toxins cause Clostridioides difficile pseudomembranous colitis?
Toxins A and B. They inactivate Rho GTPases, disrupting the cytoskeleton and epithelial barrier, which causes watery diarrhea and pseudomembrane formation after antibiotic-associated dysbiosis.
How do gout and pseudogout crystals differ under polarized light?
Gout has needle-shaped, negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals. Pseudogout has rhomboid, positively birefringent calcium pyrophosphate crystals.
What coagulation pattern is expected in hemophilia A?
Factor VIII deficiency causes prolonged PTT with normal PT and normal platelet count. Deep tissue bleeding and hemarthroses are more typical than mucosal bleeding.
Which iron study best separates iron deficiency anemia from anemia of chronic disease?
Ferritin is low in iron deficiency anemia but normal or high in anemia of chronic disease. Both can have low serum iron, so ferritin and total iron-binding capacity help distinguish depleted stores from inflammatory iron sequestration.
What finding distinguishes vitamin B12 deficiency from folate deficiency?
Neurologic dysfunction points to B12 deficiency. Both can cause megaloblastic anemia, but B12 deficiency can also cause demyelination with loss of vibration and proprioception plus upper motor neuron signs.
Which leukocytes dominate acute versus chronic inflammation?
Neutrophils dominate acute inflammation, especially early bacterial injury. Macrophages, lymphocytes, and plasma cells dominate chronic inflammation, reflecting ongoing immune activation and tissue remodeling.
What is the key difference between liquefactive and coagulative necrosis?
Liquefactive necrosis digests tissue into liquid material, classically in brain infarcts and abscesses. Coagulative necrosis preserves tissue architecture for days and is typical of ischemic infarcts in most solid organs except the brain.
Which tumor suppressor is commonly lost early in the adenoma-carcinoma sequence of colorectal cancer?
APC. Loss of APC increases beta-catenin signaling and promotes adenoma formation; later changes often include KRAS activation and p53 loss as lesions progress toward carcinoma.
What inheritance pattern is associated with BRCA1 and BRCA2 cancer predisposition?
Autosomal dominant cancer predisposition. A germline mutation in one allele increases risk, while tumor formation follows loss or inactivation of the remaining functional allele in affected tissue.
What is the equation for renal clearance of a substance?
Clearance equals urine concentration times urine flow rate divided by plasma concentration: C = (U x V) / P. A clearance near GFR suggests free filtration with no net secretion or reabsorption.
How does FEV1/FVC change in obstructive versus restrictive lung disease?
Obstructive disease decreases FEV1/FVC because expiratory flow is impaired. Restrictive disease usually has a normal or increased ratio because FEV1 and FVC fall together, with FVC reduced proportionally or more.
What is the oxygenation consequence of a true pulmonary shunt?
A true shunt causes hypoxemia that responds poorly to supplemental oxygen because blood bypasses ventilated alveoli. Low V/Q units improve more with oxygen than a complete shunt does.
Why do loop diuretics commonly cause hypokalemia?
They block Na+-K+-2Cl- transport in the thick ascending limb, increasing distal sodium delivery and tubular flow. Distal sodium reabsorption through ENaC creates a lumen-negative gradient that promotes potassium secretion.
What acid-base disorder follows prolonged vomiting or pyloric stenosis?
Metabolic alkalosis with volume depletion. Loss of gastric acid raises serum bicarbonate, while volume contraction activates aldosterone and can produce hypokalemia and paradoxical aciduria.
What is the fastest baroreceptor response to acute blood loss?
Increased heart rate from decreased vagal tone and increased sympathetic output. Sympathetic vasoconstriction and increased contractility also help maintain pressure, but heart-rate change is a rapid early response.
What stimulus causes BNP release in heart failure?
Ventricular wall stretch. BNP promotes natriuresis, diuresis, and vasodilation, so an elevated level reflects volume or pressure stress on the ventricles.
What hemodynamic change causes pulsus paradoxus in cardiac tamponade?
Exaggerated inspiratory fall in systolic blood pressure. Increased venous return to the right heart shifts the septum leftward within a fixed pericardial space, reducing left ventricular filling during inspiration.
What does the Henderson-Hasselbalch relationship say about metabolic acidosis compensation?
Lower bicarbonate lowers pH unless ventilation decreases PaCO2. Respiratory compensation is hyperventilation, which reduces PaCO2 and partially restores the bicarbonate-to-carbon dioxide ratio.
Why does hypokalemia increase digoxin toxicity?
Potassium and digoxin compete at the Na+/K+-ATPase. Low potassium allows more digoxin binding, increasing pump inhibition and raising the risk of arrhythmias, visual symptoms, nausea, and confusion.
What enzyme does methotrexate inhibit, and what reduces toxicity?
Methotrexate inhibits dihydrofolate reductase. Folinic acid, also called leucovorin, can rescue normal cells from folate depletion and reduce mucositis and myelosuppression.
What adverse effects anchor ACE inhibitors on Step 1?
Dry cough, angioedema, hyperkalemia, and teratogenicity. ACE inhibitors reduce angiotensin II and aldosterone; cough and angioedema are linked to increased bradykinin.
Why can beta blockers make diabetes management riskier?
They can mask adrenergic warning signs of hypoglycemia such as tremor, palpitations, and tachycardia. Nonselective beta blockers can also impair glycogenolysis and worsen bronchospasm in susceptible patients.
What transporter does ezetimibe inhibit?
NPC1L1 on intestinal enterocytes. Blocking this transporter reduces cholesterol absorption, decreases hepatic cholesterol delivery, and increases LDL receptor expression.
What lab pattern points to classic 21-hydroxylase deficiency?
Elevated 17-hydroxyprogesterone with cortisol deficiency, aldosterone deficiency, and androgen excess. Severe forms cause salt wasting, hypotension, hyperkalemia, and virilization of genetic females.
What is the defective gene and primary accumulation site in Wilson disease?
ATP7B mutation causes impaired copper excretion into bile. Copper first accumulates in the liver, then can deposit in the brain and cornea, producing neurologic findings and Kayser-Fleischer rings.
How do sensitivity and specificity differ?
Sensitivity is the proportion of diseased patients who test positive, so a highly sensitive test helps rule out disease when negative. Specificity is the proportion without disease who test negative, so a highly specific test helps rule in disease when positive.
How do capacity and competence differ in medical decision-making?
Capacity is a clinical assessment of a patient's ability to understand, appreciate, reason, and communicate a choice for a specific decision. Competence is a legal determination made by a court.
Frequently Asked Questions
What do these USMLE Step 1 flashcards cover?
These cards focus on high-yield active recall from local Step 1 content: biochemical enzyme defects, genetics patterns, immunology mechanisms, microbiology anchors, pathology distinctions, physiology formulas, pharmacology mechanisms, biostatistics, and ethics basics.
Are these flashcards copied from live USMLE questions?
No. The cards use original prompts and explanations based on local project content and stable foundational science concepts. They are not copied from live exams, recalled questions, leaked materials, or proprietary question banks.
How many questions are on USMLE Step 1?
Local exam metadata follows the official USMLE format: Step 1 has up to 280 multiple-choice questions across 7 blocks, with up to 40 questions per block, administered in one testing day of approximately 8 hours.
Is USMLE Step 1 scored pass/fail?
Yes. Step 1 is reported as Pass/Fail. USMLE still reports an equivalent passing standard of 196 on the prior 3-digit scale for reference.
How should these flashcards fit into Step 1 prep?
Use them for daily active recall and rapid weak-area repair, then apply the same concepts in timed question blocks. Flashcards are best for mechanisms and distinctions; practice questions are still needed for vignette interpretation and pacing.
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