NMC CBT — Shared Nursing Core Exam Flashcards

Q: Is uk-nmc-cbt one universal nursing exam?

No. Candidates must select the code matching their application: RNA for adult nursing, RNC for children's nursing, RNLD for learning disabilities nursing, or RNMH for mental health nursing. The common test specification states that 90% of the content is generic and 10% of each Part B test is field-specific.

Q: Do these flashcards include midwifery or nursing associate CBT content?

No. Midwifery and nursing associate Tests of Competence have separate routes and specifications. This set is limited to the shared registered-nurse core for RNA, RNC, RNLD and RNMH.

Q: How are Part A and Part B structured?

Part A is a 15-mark numeracy test with constructed one-number answers and a 30-minute allowance. Part B is a 100-mark clinical test with four-option single-best-answer questions and a two-hour, 30-minute allowance.

Q: What happens if a candidate passes only one CBT part?

Part A and Part B are passed independently. The candidate resits only the failed part, but each sitting counts as an attempt and there must be at least 10 days between sittings.

Q: Can this shared-core set replace a field blueprint?

No. These cards deliberately avoid field-specific clinical claims. Every candidate must review the current NMC blueprint for the exact RNA, RNC, RNLD or RNMH exam code because 10% of Part B is field-specific.

Question 1

What general formula calculates a dose quantity?

Accepted Answer

Quantity to give = (prescribed dose ÷ dose available) × available quantity. Convert both doses to the same unit before calculating and check that the result is clinically plausible.

Question 2

How are grams converted to milligrams?

Accepted Answer

Multiply grams by 1,000. In the reverse direction, divide milligrams by 1,000. Keep the unit beside every value to prevent a thousand-fold error.

Question 3

A prescription is for 750 mg and each oral tablet contains 250 mg. How many tablets are required?

Accepted Answer

3 tablets. Calculate 750 ÷ 250 = 3, then confirm that whole tablets are appropriate for the formulation and prescription.

Question 4

A liquid medicine contains 120 mg in 5 mL. What volume supplies 300 mg?

Accepted Answer

12.5 mL. Use (300 ÷ 120) × 5 = 12.5 mL, retaining the volume unit in the final answer.

Question 5

A vial contains 400 mg in 2 mL. What volume contains a 150 mg injection dose?

Accepted Answer

0.75 mL. Use (150 ÷ 400) × 2 = 0.75 mL and check that the measured volume and concentration match the medicine directions.

Question 6

What formula calculates an IV infusion rate in mL per hour?

Accepted Answer

Rate in mL/hour = total volume in mL ÷ time in hours. Use the prescribed duration, not the clock time at which the infusion started.

Question 7

How is net fluid balance calculated?

Accepted Answer

Net balance = total fluid intake minus total fluid output for the stated period. A positive value means intake exceeded output; interpretation still depends on the person's clinical condition.

Question 8

What are the four themes of the NMC Code?

Accepted Answer

Prioritise people, practise effectively, preserve safety, and promote professionalism and trust. The themes work together rather than as separate optional duties.

Question 9

What does professional accountability mean when a nurse delegates care?

Accepted Answer

The nurse must delegate only to someone competent for the task, give clear instructions, provide appropriate supervision, and remain accountable for the decision to delegate.

Question 10

What is the professional duty of candour?

Accepted Answer

Be open and honest when care causes harm or distress, explain what is known, apologise, act to put matters right where possible, and follow reporting requirements.

Question 11

What makes consent valid in nursing care?

Accepted Answer

The person must have decision-making capacity or competence under the applicable framework, receive understandable relevant information, and decide voluntarily. Consent is ongoing and can be withdrawn.

Question 12

When may confidential information be shared?

Accepted Answer

Share it with consent or when law, safeguarding, or overriding public-interest duties justify disclosure. Share only what is necessary, with appropriate people, and document the reasoning.

Question 13

What qualities must a nursing record have?

Accepted Answer

It must be complete, clear, accurate, timely, attributable to its author, and written without falsification or inappropriate alteration. Record relevant decisions and actions as well as observations.

Question 14

What should a nurse do when care may be unsafe?

Accepted Answer

Act without delay to protect people, raise and escalate the concern through appropriate channels, preserve relevant records, and follow up if the risk remains unresolved.

Question 15

What should a nurse do when asked to perform beyond their competence?

Accepted Answer

Recognise and state the limitation, seek competent help or supervision, and do not proceed in a way that creates avoidable risk. Take steps to develop the required competence safely.

Question 16

What are wider determinants of health?

Accepted Answer

They are social, economic, environmental, and commercial conditions—such as housing, income, education, work, discrimination, and access to services—that influence health and health inequalities.

Question 17

How should health information be adapted for limited health literacy?

Accepted Answer

Use plain language, manageable amounts of information, accessible formats and communication support, then check understanding rather than asking only whether the person understands.

Question 18

What makes behaviour-change support person centred?

Accepted Answer

Explore the person's priorities, motivation, strengths, circumstances and readiness; agree achievable goals; offer evidence-based options; and respect informed choices without blame or coercion.

Question 19

How does antimicrobial stewardship help prevent ill health?

Accepted Answer

It supports appropriate antimicrobial use, review and monitoring so infections are treated effectively while limiting avoidable adverse effects and antimicrobial resistance.

Question 20

What makes a nursing assessment holistic?

Accepted Answer

It considers physical, mental, cognitive, behavioural, social, cultural and spiritual needs, the person's strengths and preferences, current risks, medicines, support network, and ability for self-care.

Question 21

What is the first step when a person's condition changes during assessment?

Accepted Answer

Reassess promptly using an approach appropriate to the person's age, field and setting, address immediate safety threats, obtain help, and escalate according to clinical urgency.

Question 22

How should decision-making capacity be assessed?

Accepted Answer

Use the legal framework applicable to the person's age and circumstances, assess the specific decision at the relevant time, support decision-making, and never infer inability solely from diagnosis or disability.

Question 23

What makes a clinical risk assessment useful?

Accepted Answer

It identifies the specific hazard, likelihood and potential impact, considers protective factors, leads to proportionate actions, and is reviewed when circumstances change.

Question 24

How are care needs prioritised?

Accepted Answer

Prioritise immediate threats to life and safety, then urgent deterioration and time-critical treatment, while incorporating the person's preferences and the consequences of delay.

Question 25

What elements make a care-plan goal measurable?

Accepted Answer

State the desired outcome, relevant measure or observation, responsible actions, and review point. Agree the goal with the person and revise it when assessment findings change.

Question 26

What is shared decision-making in nursing care?

Accepted Answer

The nurse and person exchange evidence, options, risks and preferences, make reasonable adjustments for understanding, and agree care rather than treating the person as a passive recipient.

Question 27

What must be checked before administering a medicine?

Accepted Answer

Confirm the correct person, medicine, dose, route and time; check prescription validity, allergies, contraindications, required observations and calculations; explain the medicine and record administration or omission.

Question 28

What should happen after a medicine or nursing intervention is given?

Accepted Answer

Monitor the intended response and possible harm, compare findings with the care goal, act on unexpected results, and document the evaluation and any escalation.

Question 29

What is the safe response to suspected clinical deterioration?

Accepted Answer

Recognise the change, assess promptly using the field- and age-appropriate method, initiate care within competence, summon help early, communicate urgency clearly, and continue reassessment.

Question 30

How should nutrition and hydration support be individualised?

Accepted Answer

Assess intake, swallowing, clinical needs, preferences, culture, independence and risk; provide appropriate assistance; monitor outcomes; and involve specialist help when indicated.

Question 31

What is person-centred fundamental care?

Accepted Answer

Care that protects dignity while meeting individual needs for comfort, hygiene, mobility, skin integrity, elimination, nutrition, hydration, rest and communication, with independence encouraged where possible.

Question 32

When should a nursing care plan be evaluated?

Accepted Answer

Evaluate it at agreed review points and whenever condition, risk, response, goals or circumstances change. Continue, modify or stop interventions based on evidence and discussion with the person.

Question 33

What must be considered before allocating care to another team member?

Accepted Answer

Consider the person's needs and risk, the task's complexity, the worker's demonstrated competence and authority, required instructions, available supervision, and how outcomes will be reviewed.

Question 34

What makes clinical supervision effective?

Accepted Answer

Set clear expectations, remain available, observe or check work in proportion to risk, invite questions, give constructive feedback, and intervene promptly if safety or competence is uncertain.

Question 35

What does effective interdisciplinary teamwork require?

Accepted Answer

Respect each role, share relevant information, agree goals and responsibilities, challenge unsafe assumptions, involve the person receiving care, and resolve gaps rather than assuming another professional will act.

Question 36

How should a nurse respond when workload threatens safe care?

Accepted Answer

Prioritise by risk, seek support, communicate what cannot safely be completed, escalate staffing or resource concerns, and document relevant decisions without concealing unsafe conditions.

Question 37

Why are incidents and near misses reported?

Accepted Answer

Reporting supports immediate protection, transparent follow-up and system learning. A near miss reveals a hazard even when no harm occurred and should not be dismissed as irrelevant.

Question 38

What is the purpose of a quality-improvement cycle?

Accepted Answer

Identify a measurable problem, test a change, collect and compare data, learn from the result, and adapt or spread the change rather than assuming the first intervention worked.

Question 39

What are human factors in patient safety?

Accepted Answer

They are interactions among people, tasks, equipment, environment and organisation that shape performance. Fatigue, interruptions, poor design and unclear communication can create risk even when individuals intend to act safely.

Question 40

What is the nurse's first priority when a safeguarding concern arises?

Accepted Answer

Protect the person from immediate harm, listen and respond without promising secrecy, follow local safeguarding and escalation procedures, preserve relevant information, and document objectively.

Question 41

What information belongs in a safe clinical handover?

Accepted Answer

Include identity, current situation, relevant background, assessment findings, risks, treatment and response, outstanding actions, escalation plan and who is responsible, then invite questions and confirm understanding.

Question 42

What supports a safe transition between services?

Accepted Answer

Start planning early, involve the person and carers with consent, reconcile medicines and care needs, share accurate information, confirm referrals and equipment, and provide clear contacts and contingency advice.

Question 43

Why must responsibility be explicit when several services are involved?

Accepted Answer

Named responsibility prevents missed follow-up and duplicated or contradictory care. Every referral, investigation and action should have an identified owner and review point.

Question 44

What does continuity of care mean?

Accepted Answer

Care remains coherent over time and across people or settings because goals, preferences, risks, decisions and pending actions are communicated and followed through rather than repeatedly restarted.

Question 45

What is active listening in a clinical conversation?

Accepted Answer

Give attention, notice verbal and non-verbal cues, avoid premature interruption, use appropriate prompts, reflect or summarise meaning, and clarify uncertainty before responding.

Question 46

When should communication support be arranged?

Accepted Answer

Arrange appropriate interpreting, advocacy, communication aids or accessible material when language, sensory, cognitive or other needs could limit participation; do not rely automatically on relatives to interpret.

Question 47

How can a nurse check understanding without asking 'Do you understand?'

Accepted Answer

Invite the person to explain the information or plan in their own words, then clarify gaps respectfully. This checks the explanation rather than testing or blaming the person.

Question 48

What do standard infection-control precautions assume?

Accepted Answer

Apply the appropriate baseline precautions to every person based on the task and exposure risk, including hand hygiene, suitable protective equipment, sharps safety, waste handling and environmental decontamination.

Question 49

What is the core principle of aseptic non-touch technique?

Accepted Answer

Protect key parts and key sites from contamination by avoiding direct or indirect contact, using appropriate hand hygiene, preparation and aseptic equipment throughout the procedure.

Question 50

What should be checked when caring for an invasive device or line?

Accepted Answer

Confirm ongoing indication, secure placement and patency as appropriate, inspect for complications or infection, maintain the device using evidence-based precautions, document care, and escalate or remove it when indicated.

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