100+ Free NMC Midwifery OSCE Practice Questions

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Sample NMC Midwifery OSCE Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your NMC Midwifery OSCE exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1At the start of an Antenatal APIE assessment station, before approaching the woman, what is the FIRST action the marking criteria expect the midwife to take?

A.Assess the safety of the scene and protect the woman's privacy and dignity

B.Auscultate the fetal heart with a Pinard stethoscope

C.Perform urinalysis on the provided sample

D.Write the diagnosis on the MEOWS chart

Explanation: The NMC Antenatal APIE assessment grid lists assessing scene safety and the woman's privacy and dignity as the opening criterion, before hand hygiene and introductions. Establishing a safe, dignified environment is a professional-values expectation that examiners look for from the outset.

2When checking a woman's identity at an antenatal station, what is the MINIMUM combination the NMC marking criteria require?

A.Her first name only

B.Her name plus either date of birth or hospital number, verified verbally and against documentation

C.Her postcode and next of kin

D.Her NHS number written on the MEOWS chart only

Explanation: The criteria state the person's name is essential plus either their date of birth or hospital number, checked verbally, against the wristband where appropriate, and against documentation. This two-identifier rule is a recurring essential criterion across every APIE and skills station.

3A woman attends at 38 weeks with reduced fetal movements. Which set of maternal observations does the Antenatal APIE assessment grid expect the midwife to verbalise?

A.Blood pressure, temperature, pulse, respiration, oxygen saturation and per vaginam loss

B.Blood pressure and pulse only

C.Capillary blood glucose and weight

D.Apgar score and cord pH

Explanation: The antenatal assessment criteria require a full set: blood pressure, temperature, pulse, respiration, oxygen saturation and per vaginam (PV) loss. A complete observation set lets the midwife screen for deterioration on the MEOWS chart.

4During the antenatal assessment, how should the midwife confirm fetal wellbeing in a way that distinguishes the fetal heart from the maternal pulse?

A.Record only the cardiotocograph trace without palpation

B.Auscultate the fetal heart with a Pinard while simultaneously palpating the maternal radial pulse to differentiate the two rates

C.Assume any rate over 100 bpm is the fetal heart

D.Use the woman's reported fetal movements as the sole measure

Explanation: The criteria require auscultating the fetal heart (Pinard) and differentiating between fetal and maternal heart rate. Palpating the maternal pulse while auscultating prevents the dangerous error of mistaking a maternal rate for the fetal heart.

5Which measurement does the Antenatal APIE grid expect the midwife to take to assess fetal growth?

A.Estimated fetal weight from maternal BMI

B.Maternal mid-upper arm circumference

C.Symphysis-fundal height measured with a tape measure

D.Crown-rump length

Explanation: Measuring symphysis-fundal height is listed as part of assessing fetal wellbeing in the antenatal station. Plotting fundal height helps detect small- or large-for-gestational-age growth and triggers referral when off the centile.

6Before performing urinalysis at the antenatal station, what does the marking criteria require the midwife to do?

A.Send the sample directly to the laboratory

B.Catheterise the woman to obtain the sample

C.Discard the sample as it is not relevant antenatally

D.Put on disposable gloves and apron

Explanation: The grid specifically requires donning disposable gloves and apron before handling the urine sample and performing urinalysis as per the manufacturer's instructions. Appropriate PPE is an essential infection-control criterion scored throughout the station.

7An antenatal woman's blood pressure is 158/104 mmHg with new proteinuria (protein ++) at 37 weeks. On the MEOWS chart this triggers a red score. What does this most likely indicate?

A.Normal late-pregnancy physiology requiring no action

B.Dehydration to be managed with oral fluids only

C.Pre-eclampsia requiring urgent escalation and obstetric review

D.A laboratory error to be ignored

Explanation: New hypertension (>=140/90, here 158/104) with proteinuria after 20 weeks defines pre-eclampsia. A red MEOWS trigger requires the midwife to identify the concern and escalate for urgent obstetric review, reflecting NICE hypertension-in-pregnancy guidance.

8In the Antenatal Planning station, after identifying abnormal findings, on what must the midwife base the documented plan of care?

A.Personal preference unsupported by guidance

B.Current, evidence-based best practice in line with NICE guidelines

C.The fastest option to finish the station

D.Whatever the woman's relative suggests

Explanation: The planning criteria require that midwifery interventions are current, evidence-based and based on best practice in line with current NICE guidelines. Examiners reward plans that are explicitly grounded in national guidance rather than habit or convenience.

9What feature of care planning does the Antenatal Planning grid specifically reward beyond writing the clinical plan?

A.Recognising the need to involve the woman in the care-planning process

B.Using abbreviations to save time

C.Omitting review times to keep the plan concise

D.Planning without reference to the assessment findings

Explanation: Both antenatal and postnatal planning criteria explicitly require recognising the need to involve the woman in care planning. Partnership and shared decision-making are central NMC Code values that examiners assess across the OSCE.

10In the Antenatal Implementation (medicines) station, before administering any prescribed drug the midwife must verbalise a set of checks. Which list matches the NMC criteria?

A.Drug colour, batch number and manufacturer only

B.Person and drug only

C.Cost of the drug and stock level

D.Person, drug, dose, date and time of administration, route and method of administration

Explanation: The implementation grid requires verbalising person, drug, dose, date and time of administration, and route and method of administration, having first checked allergies. These align with the long-standing safe medicines-administration rights.

About the NMC Midwifery OSCE Exam

The NMC Test of Competence Part 2 (OSCE) for midwifery is the practical exam internationally educated and returning midwives must pass to join the UK register. It assesses 10 stations over around 3 hours, spanning a midwifery APIE scenario, clinical-skills stations with an acute emergency, and silent professional-values and evidence-based-practice stations, aligned to the NMC midwifery Standards of Proficiency and the NMC Code.

Assessment

10 stations: 4 linked midwifery APIE stations, 4 clinical-skills stations (at least one acute emergency skill), and 2 silent stations (professional values and behaviours; evidence-based practice).

Time Limit

Approximately 3 hours (APIE 8-20 min, skills 8-25 min, silent stations 10 min each)

Passing Score

Each station is marked pass or fail against essential criteria; a red flag for an action that could harm the woman or baby can fail a station. Candidates must pass every station to pass the OSCE overall.

Exam Fee

£794 for a full OSCE; £397 reduced resit if 7 or fewer stations are failed (NMC, 2026) (Nursing and Midwifery Council (NMC), UK (approved university test centres))

NMC Midwifery OSCE Exam Content Outline

14%

Antenatal APIE

Antenatal assessment, fetal wellbeing, MEOWS, urinalysis, evidence-based planning, safe medicines administration and SBAR handover.

13%

Intrapartum (Labour and Birth) APIE

Abdominal palpation, partogram observations, NICE Intrapartum Care planning, medicines safety and evaluation handover.

Postnatal APIE

Postnatal MEOWS assessment, mental and physical wellbeing, health education, planning, medicines and discharge handover.

26%

Clinical skills (birth, neonatal and core skills)

Normal birth and third stage, IM injection, NEWTT, systematic examination of the newborn (NIPE), catheter removal, IV flush/VIP, postnatal check and sepsis screening.

20%

Midwifery emergencies

Shoulder dystocia, postpartum haemorrhage and complex (breech) birth: recognition, manoeuvres, uterotonics, resuscitation readiness and escalation.

10%

Professional values and behaviours

Safeguarding, bereavement care, consent, duty of candour and the four themes of the NMC Code.

10%

Evidence-based practice

Critical appraisal and decision-making on induction of labour, place of birth and smoking in pregnancy.

How to Pass the NMC Midwifery OSCE Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: Each station is marked pass or fail against essential criteria; a red flag for an action that could harm the woman or baby can fail a station. Candidates must pass every station to pass the OSCE overall.
Assessment: 10 stations: 4 linked midwifery APIE stations, 4 clinical-skills stations (at least one acute emergency skill), and 2 silent stations (professional values and behaviours; evidence-based practice).
Time limit: Approximately 3 hours (APIE 8-20 min, skills 8-25 min, silent stations 10 min each)
Exam fee: £794 for a full OSCE; £397 reduced resit if 7 or fewer stations are failed (NMC, 2026)

Keys to Passing

Work through all 100 available questions
Review every answer and explanation
Track weak areas and revisit them
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

NMC Midwifery OSCE Study Tips from Top Performers

1Work through the official NMC midwifery mock OSCE and marking criteria so you know the essential criteria and recurring red flags (hand hygiene, ID checks, allergy checks) scored at every station.

2Drill the acute emergencies to muscle memory: shoulder dystocia (call for help, McRoberts, suprapubic pressure), postpartum haemorrhage (four Ts, rub up a contraction, oxytocin/uterotonics, bimanual compression) and breech manoeuvres (Lovset, Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit).

3Practise SBAR handovers and accurate MEOWS, NEWTT and partogram documentation under time pressure, since clear communication and legible records are assessed across the whole OSCE.

Frequently Asked Questions

How many stations are in the NMC midwifery OSCE and how long does it take?

The midwifery OSCE has 10 stations and takes around 3 hours: four linked APIE stations, four clinical-skills stations (at least one an acute emergency), and two silent stations (professional values and behaviours, and evidence-based practice).

What is the pass mark for the NMC midwifery OSCE?

Each station is marked pass or fail against essential criteria, and a candidate must pass every station to pass overall. A red flag can be applied for any action that could harm the woman or baby, which can fail that station.

How much does the NMC OSCE cost in 2026?

The NMC OSCE fee is £794. If you fail 7 or fewer stations you pay a reduced resit fee of £397 and only resit the stations you failed; failing 8 or more requires a full resit at £794.

Is the midwifery OSCE taken at a Pearson VUE centre?

No. The OSCE is delivered in person at NMC-approved university test centres in the UK, such as the University of Northampton, Oxford Brookes University and Ulster University. Pearson VUE delivers only the Part 1 computer-based test.