Free EAL Inspection & Testing Exam Flashcards
Memorize 50 essential terms and definitions for the EAL Level 3 Inspection & Testing Awards: Initial Verification (600/4337/4), Periodic Inspection (600/4338/6) and combined Inspection, Testing, Certification and Reporting (603/2625/6). See the term, recall the definition, then flip to check yourself.
EAWR 1989 vs BS 7671 — which one is law?
The Electricity at Work Regulations 1989 are statutory law: Regulation 4 requires systems to be constructed and maintained to prevent danger, so far as is reasonably practicable. BS 7671 is a non-statutory British Standard, but complying with it is the normal way to show EAWR compliance.
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About These EAL Inspection & Testing Flashcards
These 50 flashcards are designed to help you memorize key terms and definitions for the EAL Level 3 Inspection & Testing Awards: Initial Verification (600/4337/4), Periodic Inspection (600/4338/6) and combined Inspection, Testing, Certification and Reporting (603/2625/6). Each card shows a term on the front and its definition on the back—the classic flashcard format for vocabulary memorization. Use these alongside our practice questions to build both recall and comprehension.
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Complete Flashcard Reference
Review every term in this set. Open any term to reveal its definition.
EAWR 1989 vs BS 7671 — which one is law?
The Electricity at Work Regulations 1989 are statutory law: Regulation 4 requires systems to be constructed and maintained to prevent danger, so far as is reasonably practicable. BS 7671 is a non-statutory British Standard, but complying with it is the normal way to show EAWR compliance.
What is the 'prove-test-prove' sequence in safe isolation?
Prove: confirm your voltage indicator works, ideally on a proving unit (a small battery-powered device that simulates a live supply) or a known live source. Test: use it to confirm the target circuit is dead. Prove again: check the indicator still works on the same source afterward — this rules out a faulty indicator giving a false 'dead' reading.
Why must an isolated circuit be secured, not just switched off?
A switch or circuit-breaker can be re-closed by someone unaware of the work. HSE HSG85 says to lock the device OFF with a safety lock whose key you keep, or remove and retain the fuse (or lock its enclosure), then post a caution notice. A notice alone does not secure isolation.
Why does GS38 say to use a test lamp or two-pole voltage detector, not a multimeter, to check for voltage?
GS38 (para 19) says a proprietary test lamp or two-pole voltage detector suited to the system voltage should be used, because incorrectly set multimeters, such as one left on a current or resistance range, have often caused accidents during voltage checks.
What changed in BS 7671 on 15 April 2026, and until when does the previous edition remain valid?
Amendment 4 (BS 7671:2018+A4:2026, the 'Orange Book') was published on 15 April 2026 for immediate use. It folds in Amendment 3, adds stationary secondary batteries, ICT functional earthing and Power over Ethernet, and updates the model forms. BS 7671:2018+A2:2022+A3:2024 is withdrawn on 15 October 2026.
Which IET Guidance Note covers inspection and testing, and what edition is current?
IET Guidance Note 3: Inspection & Testing. The 10th edition (published 15 April 2026) is fully updated to BS 7671:2018+A4:2026; EAL's on-screen exams for this qualification group are open book and permit only this publication as a reference.
When is an Electrical Installation Certificate (EIC) issued?
For a new installation, for an addition or alteration that introduces one or more new circuits, or for replacing a consumer unit or distribution board. It certifies that the design, construction, and inspection and testing of the work meet BS 7671, and it records any intended departures from the Regulations.
When is a Minor Electrical Installation Works Certificate (MEIWC) appropriate instead of an EIC?
For work that doesn't add a new circuit — for example, adding a socket outlet or luminaire to an existing circuit. It's a shorter certificate covering just that alteration, not the whole installation.
What do the Schedule of Inspections and the Schedule of Test Results each record?
The Schedule of Inspections records the visual and physical checks made, such as conductor identification and enclosure suitability. The Schedule of Test Results records each circuit's measured values, such as continuity, insulation resistance, Zs and RCD operating time, so they can be checked against BS 7671 limits.
Who can sign the three roles on an EIC?
Design, construction, and inspection and testing each need a named, competent signatory. Where one person is responsible for all three, the single-signature form of the EIC can be used.
What's the core difference in purpose between an EIC and an EICR?
An EIC certifies that new work meets the current edition of BS 7671 at the point of completion. An EICR (Electrical Installation Condition Report) instead assesses the condition of an existing installation against the current edition as a safety benchmark — it doesn't require every non-compliant original feature to be upgraded.
What is the 'extent' and 'agreed limitations' of an EICR?
The extent states which parts of the installation the report covers. Limitations record anything excluded from inspection or testing, with the reasons and the name of the person they were agreed with. The report's codes and overall outcome apply only within that stated extent and those limitations.
Where must a 'Safety Electrical Connection – Do Not Remove' label be fixed?
Permanently, in a visible position at or near: every connection of an earthing conductor to an earth electrode; every connection of a bonding conductor to an extraneous-conductive-part, such as a metal gas or water pipe; and the main earthing terminal where it is separate from the main switchgear (Regulation 514.13.1).
What two notices does Regulation 514.12 require, and what does the RCD notice say?
514.12.1 requires a notice giving the recommended date of the next inspection. 514.12.2 requires an RCD notice telling users to test six-monthly by pressing the test button(s), switch the device back on, and seek expert advice if it does not operate. Domestic premises may omit both when a current EIC with guidance for recipients is issued.
Should you inspect a part of the installation before or after testing it, and with the supply on or off?
Before. Regulation 642.1 says inspection shall precede testing and shall normally be done with the part of the installation under inspection disconnected from the supply — visual and physical checks come first, so obvious faults are caught before any test voltage is applied.
What degree of protection must a consumer unit's enclosure provide, and does the top surface need more?
Live parts must be behind barriers or enclosures giving at least IPXXB/IP2X protection generally (Regulation 416.2.1) — enough to keep fingers out. Any horizontal top surface that's readily accessible must give a higher IPXXD/IP4X protection (Regulation 416.2.2), since small dropped objects could otherwise fall in and reach live parts.
What does a concealed cable at less than 50mm depth in a wall need?
It must either be run within a permitted safe zone and have 30mA RCD additional protection, or comply with Regulation 522.6.204 instead — for example, an earthed metallic cable covering, earthed conduit or trunking, mechanical protection against nails and screws, or forming part of a SELV/PELV circuit (Regulation 522.6.202).
Where does BS 7671 make Arc Fault Detection Devices (AFDDs) mandatory, not just recommended?
On single-phase AC final circuits supplying socket-outlets rated up to 32A, in four specified higher-risk premises types: high-rise residential buildings (HRRBs), houses in multiple occupation (HMOs), purpose-built student accommodation, and care homes (Regulation 421.1.7). In every other type of premises, AFDDs remain recommended rather than required.
What does EICR Code C1 mean, and what follows?
C1 = 'Danger present. Immediate remedial action is necessary.' It signals immediate danger — for example, exposed live conductors — and requires immediate action to remove the danger, such as isolating the affected circuit before the inspector leaves site.
What does EICR Code C2 mean, and what follows?
C2 = 'Potentially dangerous. Urgent remedial action is necessary.' The installation is not immediately dangerous, but a fault — for example, no effective earthing — could become dangerous. Urgent remedial action is required, though not necessarily before the inspector leaves site.
What does EICR Code C3 mean, and does it fail the report?
C3 = 'Improvement recommended.' It flags something that doesn't meet the current edition of BS 7671 but isn't itself dangerous — for example, an older but still safe accessory. A C3 alone does not make the overall EICR outcome unsatisfactory.
What does EICR code FI mean under Amendment 4?
'Further investigation is advised.' The inspector suspects a problem that could not be confirmed within the inspection, such as a symptom without a visible cause. Amendment 4:2026 removed the words 'without delay' that A3-based reports still use.
What makes an EICR's overall outcome 'unsatisfactory' under Amendment 4?
Under BS 7671:2018+A4:2026, only C1 or C2 observations make the overall assessment unsatisfactory; C3 and FI observations are recorded in a separate part and do not change the outcome. Under the withdrawn A2:2022+A3:2024 forms, an FI also made the report unsatisfactory.
Are EICR inspection intervals a legal requirement or guidance?
Mostly guidance, except where a specific law sets a maximum. The Electrical Safety Standards in the Private Rented Sector (England) Regulations 2020 require rented homes to be inspected and tested at least every 5 years. Otherwise, IET Guidance Note 3's typical intervals are a starting point the inspector adjusts for use, environment and condition.
What does the R1+R2 continuity test verify?
The end-to-end resistance of the line conductor plus the circuit protective conductor (CPC) for a radial circuit, measured with the two conductors linked together at the far end — confirming the CPC gives a continuous, low-resistance path back to the origin.
When is the R2-only continuity method used instead of R1+R2?
When it's impractical to link line and CPC at the far end, for example on some existing circuits. A long wander lead is connected to the main earthing terminal, its own resistance is nulled or subtracted, and each CPC is then measured at the circuit's points to give R2.
What are r1, rn and r2 in a ring final circuit test?
The end-to-end resistances of the ring's line (r1), neutral (rn) and CPC (r2) conductors, each measured separately at the consumer unit with the ring ends left open — the first step in confirming the ring is continuous with no breaks.
What does the ring final circuit's cross-connection ('figure-of-eight') test detect?
After the end-to-end readings, the ring ends are cross-connected (line to neutral, then line to CPC) and a reading is taken at every socket. Readings should be substantially the same at each socket (spurs read higher); readings rising toward the middle mean the ends were not cross-connected correctly, and other inconsistencies point to breaks or interconnections.
How did Amendment 2:2022 change insulation resistance testing for new work?
Where connected equipment could influence the result or be damaged, the Table 64 test (typically 500V DC) is done before that equipment is connected. After connection, a 250V DC test between live conductors and protective earth must give at least 1MΩ, confirming the new connections (Regulation 643.3.3).
What is the minimum insulation resistance for a standard 230V/400V circuit tested at 500V DC?
1 megohm (MΩ) at a 500V DC test voltage, per BS 7671 Table 64. New wiring normally reads far above this, so a result near the minimum should be investigated rather than treated as a comfortable pass.
In what order does IET Guidance Note 3 sequence the dead tests?
Continuity of protective conductors (including bonding), continuity of ring final circuit conductors, insulation resistance, and then polarity — each test builds confidence in the installation before the next test, and before any live testing begins.
How is Ze measured, and why exclude other earth paths?
Ze (external earth fault loop impedance) is measured at the origin with the main bonding conductors disconnected, isolating the supply's own earth path from parallel paths through bonded pipework or other installations — otherwise the reading would come out artificially low and misleading.
What is the formula linking Ze, R1+R2 and Zs?
Zs = Ze + (R1 + R2). A circuit's total earth fault loop impedance equals the external impedance measured at the origin plus that specific circuit's own line and CPC resistance.
What is the 0.8 factor applied to a measured Zs value, and why does it matter?
Conductor resistance rises with temperature, so a Zs measured cold reads lower than it would in service. Compare the measured value with 0.8 times the tabulated maximum Zs; otherwise a circuit could pass a cold test yet fail to disconnect in time once its conductors reach normal operating temperature.
What does a prospective fault current (PFC/PSCC) test confirm?
That the protective device — fuse or circuit-breaker — at that point has an adequate breaking capacity for the maximum current that could flow during a short-circuit or earth fault. An underrated device could fail dangerously instead of safely disconnecting.
What is the maximum disconnection time for a 230V TN final circuit covered by Table 41.1?
0.4 seconds (0.2 seconds in a TT system). Table 41.1 applies to final circuits rated up to 63A with one or more socket-outlets, and up to 32A supplying only fixed equipment (Regulation 411.3.2.2).
What disconnection time applies to distribution circuits and final circuits outside Table 41.1?
5 seconds in TN systems and 1 second in TT systems (Regulations 411.3.2.3 and 411.3.2.4). This covers distribution circuits and final circuits above 63A with socket-outlets or above 32A supplying only fixed equipment.
How did Amendment 2:2022 simplify the minimum RCD test?
It reduced the minimum requirement to a single test at the RCD's rated residual operating current (IΔn) using an alternating test current, regardless of RCD type (AC, A, F or B): a general non-delay RCD must disconnect within 300ms. The older ×0.5/×1/×5 IΔn sequence is no longer the BS 7671 minimum, though it can still be used for fault-finding.
What trip-time band applies to an S-type (time-delayed) RCD at IΔn, and why isn't it used for additional protection?
130 to 500 milliseconds. S-type RCDs are deliberately time-delayed and fitted upstream so a downstream general-type RCD trips first, avoiding loss of supply to unaffected circuits. Because of that delay they are not used for additional protection, which needs a non-delay RCD with IΔn not exceeding 30mA (Regulation 415.1.1).
What distinguishes RCD Type A from Type AC?
Type AC trips only on sinusoidal AC residual currents. Type A additionally trips on pulsating DC residual currents, which are common where electronic equipment such as LED drivers is connected. BS 7671 restricts Type AC to fixed equipment known not to produce DC components.
What standard covers electrical test instruments like insulation and loop testers?
BS EN 61557 (in its various parts) sets performance requirements for the instruments used to verify installations — insulation resistance testers, earth fault loop impedance testers, RCD testers, and others — so results from a compliant instrument can be relied on.
What fuse rating does GS38 specify for test leads used with a multimeter?
Fused leads for multimeters should have a high-breaking-capacity fuse, usually rated no more than 500mA, or a current-limiting resistor and fuse. Leads used with loop impedance or RCD testers typically use a 10A fuse because of the higher test current (GS38, 4th edition).
How much bare metal can a GS38-compliant test probe tip expose?
No more than 4mm, measured across any surface of the tip. HSE Guidance Note GS38 recommends reducing this further to 2mm or less, or using spring-loaded retractable screened probes, to limit the risk of accidentally bridging live parts.
What are the typical symptoms of a high-resistance joint?
Localised heat, and sometimes discolouration or scorching, at the connection; a voltage drop across the joint under load that isn't present with no load; and intermittent or load-dependent faults elsewhere on the circuit.
What is the danger of reversed polarity (line and neutral transposed)?
Single-pole switches, protective devices, and some equipment may end up switching or protecting the neutral instead of the line conductor. The circuit can then appear switched off or protected while the line conductor — and any exposed live parts downstream — remains energised.
Why must you check for surge protective devices (SPDs) before an insulation resistance test?
An SPD can conduct at the 500V DC Table 64 test voltage, giving a falsely low reading or being damaged, so disconnect it before the test. Where that isn't practicable, test that circuit at 250V DC between live conductors and protective earth; the result must be at least 1MΩ (Regulation 643.3.3).
What does the polarity test (Regulation 643.6) verify?
That every fuse and single-pole switching or protective device is in the line conductor only; that centre-contact bayonet and Edison screw lampholders have their outer contact on the neutral (E14/E27 lampholders to BS EN 60238 excepted); and that socket-outlets and similar accessories are correctly connected. It is normally checked dead during the R1+R2 test.
What must be true of a TT system's earth electrode resistance for an RCD to give adequate protection?
RA × IΔn must not exceed 50V (Regulation 411.5.3), where RA is the earth electrode resistance (plus the conductor to it) and IΔn is the RCD's rated residual operating current. For a 30mA RCD this allows up to about 1667Ω, though BS 7671 notes electrode resistance above roughly 200Ω may not be stable enough to rely on.
Why does BS 7671 require a phase sequence check on three-phase installations?
Regulation 643.9 requires phase sequence to be checked at all relevant points of the installation — confirming L1, L2 and L3 are connected in the correct rotation. Getting this wrong can reverse the direction of three-phase motors and other rotating equipment when it's first switched on.
What does 'functional testing' cover beyond the individual dead and live tests?
Regulation 643.10 requires functional testing of assemblies, switchgear, controls, interlocks and similar equipment to confirm they're correctly mounted, adjusted and installed for their intended function — including operating each RCD's own integral test button to confirm it still disconnects the circuit.
Frequently Asked Questions
Is EAL's Initial Verification and Periodic Inspection & Testing content one exam or two?
Neither, exactly — it's three related but distinct EAL Level 3 awards, confirmed in EAL's own qualification specification (Issue 5, June 2026): 600/4337/4 (Initial Verification and Certification, one 55-question on-screen exam), 600/4338/6 (Periodic Inspection, Testing and Certification, a 35-question bridging exam plus the QCR/001 exam (35 questions per the spec's Appendix 2; its Section 6.1 table says 25) — waived down to just QCR/001 if you already hold 600/4337/4), and 603/2625/6 (the combined Inspection, Testing, Certification and Reporting award, one 60-question on-screen exam covering both topics). Check with your training centre which award(s) you are registering for.
Which edition of BS 7671 applies right now, in September 2026?
BS 7671:2018+A4:2026 (Amendment 4, the 'Orange Book') was published on 15 April 2026 and can be used immediately. The previous edition, BS 7671:2018+A2:2022+A3:2024 (the 'Brown Book'), remains valid only until it is formally withdrawn on 15 October 2026. After that date, Amendment 4 is the sole recognised UK standard. IET Guidance Note 3 is the only publication EAL's specification lists for its open-book on-screen exams; its current edition is the 10th (2026), updated to A4:2026.
Did BS 7671 Amendment 2:2022 change RCD testing?
Yes. Amendment 2:2022 simplified the minimum RCD test to a single check at the rated residual operating current (IΔn), with a maximum disconnection time of 300ms for a general non-delay RCD, regardless of RCD type (AC, A, F or B). The older sequence of testing at 0.5×, 1× and 5× IΔn is no longer the BS 7671 minimum requirement, though it can still be useful for fault-finding. Older study material that only describes the 0.5×/1×/5× sequence is describing the pre-2022 requirement.
What format is the on-screen exam and practical assessment?
Each award's on-screen exam is open book, multiple-choice, and permits only the IET Guidance Note 3 Inspection and Testing publication plus a non-programmable calculator as references. Per EAL's specification: 55 questions in 90 minutes for 600/4337/4 (pass mark 62%); a 35-question, 60-minute bridging exam for 600/4338/6 unless you already hold 600/4337/4, followed by the 60-minute QCR/001 exam (35 questions per the spec's Appendix 2; its Section 6.1 table says 25) (pass mark 62.5%); and 60 questions in 120 minutes for 603/2625/6 (pass mark 61.5%). Each award also requires two centre-marked practical assessments, graded Pass or Refer, with no fixed time stated.
Do I need a wiring regulations qualification before starting?
No formal entry requirements for 600/4337/4 (minimum age 16; certificate signatories must be 18). 600/4338/6 and 603/2625/6 are for electricians who already hold relevant Level 3 electrotechnical qualifications (minimum age 18) and are not suitable for newcomers.
What's the difference between an EIC and an EICR?
An Electrical Installation Certificate (EIC) certifies that new work — a new installation or a new circuit — meets the current edition of BS 7671 at the point of completion. An Electrical Installation Condition Report (EICR) instead assesses the condition of an existing installation against the current edition as a safety benchmark, using classification codes (C1, C2, C3, FI) rather than a pass/fail certificate for new work.