Free RDA Exam Flashcards

Adopted by the ADA in the United States. Permanent teeth are numbered 1-32 starting at the maxillary right third molar (#1) and ending at the mandibular right third molar (#32). Primary teeth use letters A-T in the same sequence.

Divides the mouth into four quadrants using a bracket symbol. Each quadrant numbers permanent teeth 1-8 starting at the central incisor and moving distally. Primary teeth use letters A-E in the same pattern. Commonly used in orthodontics.

International system used outside the U.S. First digit identifies quadrant (1-4 permanent, 5-8 primary), second digit identifies tooth position 1-8 from the midline. Example: #11 is the permanent maxillary right central incisor.

Five surfaces per tooth: Mesial (toward midline), Distal (away from midline), Facial/Buccal/Labial (toward cheek or lip), Lingual/Palatal (toward tongue or palate), Occlusal (chewing surface of posteriors) or Incisal (biting edge of anteriors).

G.V. Black classified caries by location: Class I (pits and fissures), Class II (proximal of posteriors), Class III (proximal of anteriors, no incisal), Class IV (proximal of anteriors with incisal angle), Class V (cervical third of any tooth), Class VI (cusp tips or incisal edges).

A direct restorative alloy of mercury combined with silver, tin, copper, and sometimes zinc. Used in posterior teeth where strength matters more than esthetics. Triturated immediately before placement. Scrap amalgam must be captured by an ISO 11143-compliant amalgam separator under EPA dental effluent rules.

Tooth-colored restorative containing a resin matrix (typically Bis-GMA) with inorganic filler particles. Light-cured in 2 mm increments to reduce polymerization shrinkage. Requires a dry, acid-etched, bonded surface; moisture contamination causes failure.

Restorative and luting material that releases fluoride and bonds chemically to enamel and dentin. Used for Class V restorations, pediatric restorations, liners, and luting crowns. Sensitive to moisture during initial set but mechanically weaker than composite.

Provisional restorative and base material. Eugenol has a sedative effect on the pulp, making it useful under deep restorations. Should NOT be placed under resin-based restorations because eugenol inhibits polymerization of resin cements and composites.

An irreversible hydrocolloid used for preliminary impressions, study models, and opposing arches. Mixed with water; setting accelerates in warm water. Must be poured within about 15 minutes to prevent dimensional change from syneresis (water loss) or imbibition (water gain).

An addition-reaction silicone elastomer used for final impressions because of high dimensional accuracy. Hydrophobic versions need a dry field. Latex gloves can inhibit set; use nitrile or vinyl gloves when handling unset PVS.

Latex or non-latex sheet that isolates teeth, providing moisture control, soft-tissue retraction, and patient airway protection. Required for endodontic procedures to keep the canal field aseptic and to prevent aspiration or swallowing of instruments and irrigants.

The operatory is divided around the patient's head: Operator zone, Assistant zone, Transfer zone (where instruments are passed, above the patient's chest), and Static zone (behind the patient, for the mobile cart). Goal: efficient, ergonomic, instrument-ready support.

Large-bore suction tip used by the assistant to remove water, saliva, blood, and aerosols during procedures. Reduces aerosol exposure when used with the high-speed handpiece. Tip should be parallel to the buccal surface of the tooth being treated and just distal to it.

Protects prepared tooth structure, maintains occlusal and proximal contacts, preserves esthetics, and prevents tooth migration while a permanent indirect restoration is fabricated. California RDAs may place and adjust provisional restorations under dentist supervision.

Resin-based coating applied to deep occlusal pits and fissures of caries-free posterior teeth to prevent decay. California requires a board-approved sealant course before an RDA may place sealants under the supervising dentist's authorization.

Removal of plaque and extrinsic stain from clinical crowns using a rubber cup and prophy paste; it does not remove calculus. California RDAs may perform coronal polishing only after completing a board-approved course; supragingival scaling remains an RDH function.

Delivered as foam, gel, varnish, or rinse to strengthen enamel and reverse early demineralization. 5% sodium fluoride varnish (22,600 ppm F) is the workhorse for in-office application. Instruct caries patients to avoid eating, drinking, or brushing for at least 30 minutes after varnish.

Paralleling: film/sensor placed parallel to the long axis of the tooth, central ray perpendicular to both; produces the most accurate, lowest-distortion image and is the preferred intraoral method. Bisecting: central ray aimed perpendicular to an imaginary bisector between the tooth axis and the receptor; used when anatomy prevents paralleling.

kVp (kilovoltage peak) controls the energy/penetrating power of the X-ray beam and the image contrast - higher kVp produces longer scales of gray. mA (milliamperage) controls the quantity of electrons and therefore the density (overall darkness) of the image. Exposure time multiplies mA effects.

As Low As Reasonably Achievable. Radiation exposure must be minimized through use of fast-speed receptors (F-speed film or digital sensors), rectangular collimation, lead apron with thyroid collar, proper technique, and operator distance and shielding.

Stand at least 6 feet from the tube head OR behind a protective barrier (lead-equivalent wall). Position at a 90-135 degree angle to the primary beam. Never hold the receptor or tube head for the patient.

Required for every intraoral and most extraoral exposures in California. The thyroid collar is omitted only when it would obscure the diagnostic field (some panoramic and cephalometric views). Aprons should be stored flat or on a rounded hanger, never folded, to prevent cracks in the lead.

The National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements recommends an annual occupational whole-body effective dose limit of 50 mSv (5 rem) and a lifetime cumulative limit of 10 mSv times the worker's age. The pregnant occupational worker monthly equivalent dose limit is 0.5 mSv to the embryo/fetus.

F-speed (InSight) film requires roughly 60% less radiation than D-speed film for the same diagnostic image and is the current ADA-recommended film. Digital sensors (CCD/CMOS or PSP plates) typically reduce dose another 30-50% compared to F-speed film.

Categorizes patient-care items by infection risk: Critical (penetrate soft tissue or bone - need STERILIZATION), Semi-critical (contact mucous membranes or non-intact skin - need sterilization or high-level disinfection), Non-critical (contact intact skin only - need low- or intermediate-level disinfection).

Sterilization destroys ALL microorganisms including bacterial spores and is required for critical and semi-critical items. Disinfection destroys most pathogens but not all spores and is used on non-critical surfaces or heat-sensitive items. Always clean before sterilizing or disinfecting.

Standard gravity-displacement cycle: 121 degrees C (250 degrees F) at 15 PSI for at least 15-30 minutes. Flash/pre-vacuum cycles run hotter and shorter (e.g., 132 degrees C / 270 degrees F for 4 minutes wrapped). Items must be cleaned, dried, and properly packaged before the cycle.

Used for items that corrode in steam (carbon-steel burs, cutting instruments). Typical cycle: 160 degrees C (320 degrees F) for 2 hours or 170 degrees C (340 degrees F) for 1 hour. Slower than autoclaving and unsuitable for heat-sensitive plastics.

Three indicators: Mechanical (time, temperature, pressure gauges each cycle), Chemical (process indicator on each package + internal indicator inside), and Biological (spore test) at LEAST WEEKLY using Geobacillus stearothermophilus for steam autoclaves. Log all results and quarantine implants until biological results return negative.

Requires a written exposure control plan reviewed annually, free Hepatitis B vaccination for at-risk employees, engineering and work-practice controls, free PPE, sharps injury log, annual training, and post-exposure evaluation. In California, Cal/OSHA's Aerosol Transmissible Diseases (ATD) standard adds airborne and droplet pathogen controls.

CDC and ADA recommend that dental unit water used for non-surgical procedures contain no more than 500 CFU/mL of heterotrophic bacteria, matching EPA drinking-water standards. Routine treatment requires chemical germicides, periodic shocking, and monitoring per manufacturer instructions.

Infection-control practices applied to EVERY patient regardless of known disease status. Treat all blood, saliva, and other body fluids as potentially infectious. Includes hand hygiene, PPE, safe injection practices, sharps safety, environmental surface disinfection, and proper instrument reprocessing.

Donning order: gown -> mask/respirator -> protective eyewear/face shield -> gloves. Doffing order (most-to-least contaminated): gloves -> eyewear -> gown -> mask. Perform hand hygiene immediately after removing all PPE and any time gloves are changed.

A surgical/procedure mask blocks splatter and large droplets but does not seal to the face. An N95 filtering facepiece respirator filters at least 95% of 0.3-micron airborne particles and requires medical clearance, annual fit testing, and a user seal check each time it is worn under the Cal/OSHA ATD standard.

Never bend, break, or two-hand recap a contaminated needle. Use a one-handed scoop technique or a mechanical recapping device. Dispose of sharps immediately in an FDA-cleared, puncture-resistant, leak-proof, labeled (biohazard) container that is not overfilled past the fill line.

Immediately wash the site with soap and water (flush mucous membranes with saline or water), report to the supervisor, and start the OSHA-required post-exposure evaluation within 1-2 hours: source-patient testing, exposed worker baseline labs (HBV, HCV, HIV), and consideration of HIV post-exposure prophylaxis.

Pulse 60-100 bpm; respirations 12-20 per minute; temperature about 37 degrees C (98.6 degrees F); blood pressure under 120/80 mmHg is normal per AHA, 120-129/<80 elevated, 130-139/80-89 stage 1 hypertension, and 140+/90+ stage 2. Document baseline before any procedure that may stress the cardiovascular system.

American Society of Anesthesiologists scale: I healthy, II mild systemic disease (controlled hypertension, diabetes), III severe systemic disease that limits activity, IV severe disease that is a constant threat to life, V moribund, VI brain-dead organ donor. Routine outpatient dentistry is generally limited to ASA I-III without modification.

Always flag uncontrolled diabetes, recent myocardial infarction (within 6 months), bleeding disorders or anticoagulant therapy, pregnancy, latex/medication allergies, recent joint replacement requiring antibiotic prophylaxis per AHA/ADA guidance, immunosuppression, and active infectious disease before any procedure starts.

The most common dental medical emergency. Recognize pallor, sweating, lightheadedness. Place the patient in Trendelenburg (supine, feet elevated), maintain airway, administer oxygen, monitor pulse and BP, and use ammonia inhalants if needed. Document the event and obtain medical clearance before resuming treatment.

Oxygen with positive-pressure delivery, automated external defibrillator (AED), epinephrine 1:1,000 auto-injector for anaphylaxis, diphenhydramine (antihistamine), albuterol inhaler for asthma, nitroglycerin for angina, oral glucose for hypoglycemia, and aspirin 325 mg for suspected MI. Check expiration dates monthly.

Lidocaine 2% with 1:100,000 epinephrine: maximum 7 mg/kg up to 500 mg in a healthy adult (about 13 cartridges of 1.8 mL). California RDAs do NOT administer local anesthetic injections; that scope belongs to dentists, dental hygienists in alternative practice, and RDAEFs with appropriate authorization.

Business and Professions Code, Division 2, Chapter 4. Establishes the Dental Board of California, defines scope of practice and supervision levels (general, direct, personal), licenses dentists and allied dental personnel, and authorizes the Board to discipline licensees. RDAs are required to complete a Board-approved Dental Practice Act course.

General supervision: dentist has authorized procedures but need not be present. Direct supervision: dentist is present in the office, has examined the patient, and authorizes and checks the procedure. Personal supervision: dentist is in the operatory directing the procedure. Each RDA duty is mapped to one of these levels in Title 16 CCR.

California RDA licenses renew every 2 years. RDAs must complete 25 hours of approved continuing education each cycle, including required courses in California Dental Practice Act, Infection Control, and Basic Life Support. CE must be from Dental Board-approved providers; keep records for at least 4 years for audit.

Dental professionals are mandated reporters under California Penal Code section 11165.7 for suspected child abuse/neglect (report to law enforcement or Child Protective Services as soon as practicable, written within 36 hours) and elder/dependent adult abuse under Welfare and Institutions Code 15630. Failure to report is a misdemeanor.

Protects individually identifiable health information (PHI). Requires a Notice of Privacy Practices, minimum-necessary disclosure, patient access to records (response within 30 days), business associate agreements with vendors handling PHI, and breach notification. California's CMIA can be stricter than HIPAA, so apply the more protective rule.

Requires that the patient (or legal guardian) understand the diagnosis, proposed treatment, material risks and benefits, reasonable alternatives, and the option of no treatment. The supervising dentist obtains informed consent; the RDA may witness the signature and confirm patient understanding but cannot legally provide the consent discussion.

Dentists must retain adult dental records for at least 7 years after the last visit and minors' records until the patient reaches age 25 (per Dental Board guidance and CCR Title 16). Records must include radiographs, treatment notes, consent forms, and a clear chronological history; alteration or destruction to defraud is grounds for discipline.