Free Pakistan LAW-GAT Exam Flashcards
Memorize 50 essential terms and definitions for the Law Graduate Assessment Test (LAW-GAT). See the term, recall the definition, then flip to check yourself.
Why is Federation of Pakistan v. Maulvi Tamizuddin Khan (PLD 1955 FC 240) central to Pakistan's constitutional history?
The Federal Court treated Governor-General assent as necessary for Constituent Assembly legislation and found the jurisdiction-conferring provision relied on in the case lacked that assent. The ruling deepened the constitutional validation crisis that followed the Assembly's dissolution.
Filter by Topic
Jump to Card
About These Pakistan LAW-GAT Flashcards
These 50 flashcards are designed to help you memorize key terms and definitions for the Law Graduate Assessment Test (LAW-GAT). Each card shows a term on the front and its definition on the back—the classic flashcard format for vocabulary memorization. Use these alongside our practice questions to build both recall and comprehension.
Topics Covered
Complete Flashcard Reference
Review every term in this set. Open any term to reveal its definition.
Why is Federation of Pakistan v. Maulvi Tamizuddin Khan (PLD 1955 FC 240) central to Pakistan's constitutional history?
The Federal Court treated Governor-General assent as necessary for Constituent Assembly legislation and found the jurisdiction-conferring provision relied on in the case lacked that assent. The ruling deepened the constitutional validation crisis that followed the Assembly's dissolution.
What constitutional theory did State v. Dosso (PLD 1958 SC 533) use to assess a successful coup?
The Court used Hans Kelsen's revolutionary-legality theory: a successful revolution could become a new basic norm and validate a new legal order. That approach was later rejected in Asma Jilani.
What did Asma Jilani v. Government of Pakistan (PLD 1972 SC 139) establish about Yahya Khan's rule?
The Supreme Court declared Yahya Khan a usurper, rejected Dosso's use of Kelsen to legitimize martial law, and held that unlawful seizure of power does not become lawful merely through effectiveness.
What is the effect of Article 8 on a law inconsistent with a Fundamental Right?
The law, custom, or usage having the force of law is void only to the extent of the inconsistency. Article 8 also bars the State from making a law that takes away or abridges Fundamental Rights, subject to the Constitution's stated exceptions.
What does Article 10A guarantee?
A person is entitled to a fair trial and due process when civil rights or obligations are determined or when a criminal charge is decided.
What protections appear expressly in Article 14?
Human dignity is inviolable, and the privacy of the home is inviolable subject to law. Article 14 also prohibits torture for extracting evidence.
What institutions together form Majlis-e-Shoora (Parliament) under Article 50?
The President and two Houses: the National Assembly and the Senate.
What court structure does current Article 175 establish after the Twenty-seventh Amendment?
It establishes the Federal Constitutional Court, the Supreme Court, a High Court for each Province, a High Court for the Islamabad Capital Territory, and other courts established by law. A court has only jurisdiction conferred by the Constitution or by or under law.
What conduct does UN Charter Article 2(4) require member states to avoid?
The threat or use of force against another state's territorial integrity or political independence, or in any other manner inconsistent with the purposes of the United Nations.
What is the foundation of the International Court of Justice's contentious jurisdiction?
State consent. A state may consent through a special agreement, a treaty jurisdiction clause, or compatible optional-clause declarations; UN membership alone does not create jurisdiction over every dispute.
How does ratio decidendi differ from obiter dictum?
The ratio decidendi is the legal principle necessary to decide the case and is the potentially binding part of a precedent. Obiter dicta are observations not necessary to the decision; they may persuade but are not binding as the ratio.
What is the basic correlativity between a legal right and a legal duty?
A claim-right in one person corresponds to a duty in another. If A has a legal claim that B perform or refrain from an act, B bears the correlative duty.
How do possession and ownership differ in jurisprudence?
Possession concerns factual control plus the intention to possess; ownership is the legal title or comprehensive legal entitlement. A possessor may lack title, and an owner may temporarily lack possession.
What are the four commonly stated foundational sources used in classical Islamic jurisprudence?
The Qur'an, Sunnah, ijma (juristic consensus), and qiyas (analogical reasoning), with their authority and application analyzed through usul al-fiqh.
What four elements structure a classical qiyas analogy?
The original case (asl), the new case (far'), the rule governing the original (hukm), and the effective cause shared by both ('illah). The shared effective cause supports extending the rule to the new case.
What jurisdictional presumption does CPC section 9 create?
Civil courts may try all suits of a civil nature unless their cognizance is expressly or impliedly barred.
What core conditions trigger res judicata under CPC section 11?
A matter directly and substantially in issue was also directly and substantially in issue between the same parties or their privies litigating under the same title, and a competent court heard and finally decided it.
Where are suits concerning rights in immovable property generally instituted under CPC section 16?
In the court within whose local jurisdiction the property is situated, subject to applicable pecuniary and other legal limits and the section's stated qualifications.
Who decides disputes about execution, discharge, or satisfaction of a decree under CPC section 47?
The court executing the decree decides them when they arise between the parties to the suit or their representatives; they are not decided through a separate suit.
What is the general appeal rule in CPC section 96?
Unless another provision or law says otherwise, an appeal lies from every decree of a court exercising original jurisdiction to the authorized appellate court. An ex parte original decree may be appealed, but a consent decree may not.
When may revisional jurisdiction be used under CPC section 115?
Where no appeal lies, the revisional court may intervene if a subordinate court exercised jurisdiction it did not have, failed to exercise jurisdiction it had, or acted illegally or with material irregularity in exercising jurisdiction.
What does CPC section 151 preserve?
A court's inherent power, exercised after recording reasons, to make orders necessary for the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of the court's process. It does not replace an express Code remedy.
What must a pleading contain under CPC Order VI, rule 2?
A concise statement of the material facts supporting the claim or defence, not the evidence by which those facts will be proved.
Name the four grounds for rejection of a plaint under CPC Order VII, rule 11.
No disclosed cause of action; failure to correct an undervalued relief; failure to supply required stamp paper after notice; or the suit appears from the plaint to be barred by law.
When may a temporary injunction protect disputed property under CPC Order XXXIX, rule 1?
When the property is in danger of being wasted, damaged, alienated, or wrongfully sold in execution, or when the defendant threatens to remove or dispose of property to defraud creditors.
What mental element does the Pakistan Penal Code define as acting “dishonestly”?
Doing something with the intention of causing wrongful gain to one person or wrongful loss to another.
What liability rule appears in PPC section 34?
When several persons commit a criminal act in furtherance of their common intention, each is liable for the act as if that person had done it alone.
What is the current minimum-age rule in PPC section 82?
Nothing is an offence if done by a child under ten years of age. The printed section heading may still say “under seven,” but the operative text was amended to ten.
What elements define theft under PPC section 378?
A person dishonestly intends to take movable property out of another person's possession without consent and moves the property to accomplish that taking.
What key fact distinguishes criminal breach of trust from theft?
Criminal breach of trust begins with entrustment or dominion over property, followed by dishonest misappropriation, conversion, use, or disposal contrary to law or the governing contract. Theft instead begins with a dishonest taking from another's possession without consent.
How does CrPC section 4 distinguish a cognizable from a non-cognizable offence?
For a cognizable offence, police may arrest without warrant under the Second Schedule or another law. For a non-cognizable offence, police may not arrest without warrant.
What must happen to oral information about a cognizable offence under CrPC section 154?
The officer in charge must reduce it to writing, read it to the informant, obtain the informant's signature, and enter its substance in the prescribed book, subject to special statutory procedures for specified complainants and offences.
What general cognizable-offence ground permits arrest without warrant under CrPC section 54?
Police may arrest a person concerned in a cognizable offence, or against whom there is a reasonable complaint, credible information, or reasonable suspicion of such involvement, without first obtaining a Magistrate's order or warrant.
What is the basic examination rule when a Magistrate takes cognizance on a complaint under CrPC section 200?
The Magistrate generally examines the complainant on oath at once, reduces the substance to writing, and has it signed by both the complainant and Magistrate, subject to the section's stated exceptions.
What is the “further inquiry” bail rule in CrPC section 497(2)?
If there are not reasonable grounds to believe the accused committed the non-bailable offence but there are sufficient grounds for further inquiry, the accused must be released pending inquiry—on bail or, at the officer's or court's discretion, on a bond without sureties.
What is the basic witness-competence test under Qanun-e-Shahadat Article 3?
A person is generally competent unless the court finds the person unable to understand questions or give rational answers because of youth, old age, bodily or mental disease, or a similar cause, subject to Article 3's additional provisos.
What is an admission under Qanun-e-Shahadat Article 30?
An oral or documentary statement that suggests an inference about a fact in issue or relevant fact and is made by a person and in circumstances recognized by the Order.
When is an accused person's confession excluded under Qanun-e-Shahadat Articles 37–39?
A confession is excluded when caused by a qualifying inducement, threat, or promise from a person in authority; a confession to police is not proved against the accused; and a confession in police custody is not proved unless made in a Magistrate's immediate presence, subject to Article 40.
What part of custodial information may be proved under Qanun-e-Shahadat Article 40?
Only so much of the accused's information as relates distinctly to the fact discovered because of that information, whether or not that portion amounts to a confession.
What does it mean that oral evidence must be direct under Article 71?
A witness must testify from the relevant firsthand perception: what the witness personally saw, heard, or otherwise perceived. An opinion generally must come from the person who holds it, subject to the Article's exceptions.
What is primary evidence under Qanun-e-Shahadat Article 73?
The document itself produced for the court's inspection, with the Article's rules for counterparts, documents made by a uniform process, and qualifying electronic outputs.
What is secondary evidence under Article 74, and is it automatically admissible?
It includes recognized certified copies, accurate mechanical copies, compared copies, certain counterparts, and firsthand oral accounts of a document's contents. It is admissible only when a condition in Article 76 or another applicable rule permits it.
What conduct creates estoppel under Qanun-e-Shahadat Article 114?
A person intentionally causes or permits another to believe something is true and to act on that belief. In a proceeding between them or their representatives, the first person may not then deny that thing's truth.
Who bears the general burden of proof under Articles 117 and 118?
The person who asks the court to recognize a right or liability based on asserted facts must prove them; operationally, the burden lies on the party who would fail if neither side produced any evidence.
When may leading questions be asked under Articles 136–138?
They may be asked in cross-examination. If the adverse party objects, they generally may not be asked in examination-in-chief or re-examination without court permission, although the court must allow them for introductory, undisputed, or sufficiently proved matters.
What does Pakistan Bar Council Rule 135 prohibit, and what narrow identification is allowed?
It prohibits soliciting professional employment by advertising or other means. Ordinary professional cards, name plates, and conventional directory listings are allowed when limited to professional or academic qualifications and current public offices and when they do not become personal advertising.
May an advocate contact a represented opposing party directly about the controversy?
Not in the absence of and without the consent of that party's advocate. Rule 137 protects the represented party and counsel relationship.
What duties does Rule 150 impose when an advocate receives client money or property?
The advocate must not commingle it with personal property and must promptly report receipt of the client's money or property to the client.
What candor duties does Rule 161 impose when citing evidence and legal authority?
An advocate must not intentionally misquote testimony, argument, documents, books, statutes, or decisions, and must not knowingly cite an overruled decision or repealed or unconstitutional statute without disclosing its invalidity.
What is a public prosecutor's primary duty under Rule 163?
To see that justice is done, not merely to obtain a conviction. Suppressing facts or concealing witnesses capable of establishing the accused's innocence is highly reprehensible.
Frequently Asked Questions
How many questions are on the LAW-GAT and how is the syllabus weighted?
HEC's official syllabus totals 100 MCQs: Constitution 20, Jurisprudence 10, Civil Procedure Code 20, Criminal Law 20, Law of Evidence 20, and Professional Ethics 10. These 50 cards use the same proportions.
What passing score and test duration should I use for LAW-GAT planning?
The current HEC syllabus and current ETC candidate FAQ reviewed for this set do not state a qualifying score or a fixed duration. Use the current HEC/ETC announcement and the instructions on your roll-number slip rather than relying on an older prep page.
How many chances are available to qualify LAW-GAT?
HEC's September 15, 2023 notification increased the limit from five to seven chances. It does not create a special waiting period after the third failure; candidates reapply for a later scheduled administration under current ETC rules.
How long is an HEC LAW-GAT result valid?
The HEC ETC operations SOP states that LAW-GAT results are valid for two years from the result date. Candidates should complete the applicable Bar Council enrolment steps within the validity period and confirm any current local requirements.
Who needs LAW-GAT?
HEC describes LAW-GAT as the assessment a law graduate must qualify before becoming eligible to apply to a Bar Council for enrolment as an Advocate. Passing the test is an eligibility step, not automatic enrolment or a substitute for the relevant Bar Council's other requirements.
Do these cards reflect current Pakistani law?
The cards were checked against current official Pakistan Code texts and the Pakistan Bar Council's rules available on August 9, 2026. Because statutes and constitutional provisions can change, candidates should recheck official texts close to their test date.