Free APPSC Endowment Officer Exam Flashcards
Memorize 50 essential terms and definitions for the APPSC Executive Officer Grade-III — Notification 23/2026. See the term, recall the definition, then flip to check yourself.
Which seven kandas organize the received Valmiki Ramayana, and where does Hanuman find Sita?
Bala, Ayodhya, Aranya, Kishkindha, Sundara, Yuddha and Uttara. Hanuman’s search and encounter with Sita in Lanka belong to Sundara Kanda. This is the conventional seven-kanda arrangement; textual history and regional retellings differ.
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About These APPSC Endowment Officer Flashcards
These 50 flashcards are designed to help you memorize key terms and definitions for the APPSC Executive Officer Grade-III — Notification 23/2026. Each card shows a term on the front and its definition on the back—the classic flashcard format for vocabulary memorization. Use these alongside our practice questions to build both recall and comprehension.
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Complete Flashcard Reference
Review every term in this set. Open any term to reveal its definition.
Which seven kandas organize the received Valmiki Ramayana, and where does Hanuman find Sita?
Bala, Ayodhya, Aranya, Kishkindha, Sundara, Yuddha and Uttara. Hanuman’s search and encounter with Sita in Lanka belong to Sundara Kanda. This is the conventional seven-kanda arrangement; textual history and regional retellings differ.
Where does the Bhagavad Gita occur in the Mahabharata?
It is Krishna’s teaching to Arjuna in the Bhishma Parva, set before the Kurukshetra battle. The received Mahabharata has 18 major parvas. Chapter numbering differs between editions, so identify the parva rather than treating one edition’s chapter numbers as universal.
How do Fundamental Rights differ from Directive Principles, and which remedy protects Fundamental Rights?
Fundamental Rights in Part III are judicially enforceable, subject to their constitutional limits. Directive Principles in Part IV guide governance and are not directly enforceable by courts (Article 37). Article 32 provides access to the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights; High Courts have broader writ jurisdiction under Article 226.
Which Bhagavata Purana skandhas are associated with Gajendra and Krishna, and who composed the Telugu rendering?
In the conventional 12-skandha arrangement, the Gajendra episode is in Skandha 8 and Krishna’s life is central to Skandha 10. Bammera Potana composed the Telugu Andhra Mahabhagavatam. These are text-location and authorship associations, not historical dating claims about the narratives.
How does an ordinance under Constitution Article 123 differ from a permanent law without a time limit?
Except when both Houses of Parliament are in session, the President may promulgate an ordinance if satisfied that immediate action is necessary. It has the force of an Act but must be laid before both Houses and ceases six weeks after reassembly unless replaced by legislation; earlier disapproval or withdrawal can end it sooner. If the Houses reassemble on different dates, the six weeks run from the later date. It cannot exceed Parliament’s constitutional legislative competence.
How did the Non-Cooperation and Civil Disobedience movements differ?
Non-Cooperation (launched 1920) emphasized withdrawal from colonial institutions and boycott; Gandhi suspended it in 1922 after Chauri Chaura. Civil Disobedience began in 1930 with the Salt March and deliberate breach of unjust colonial laws. Do not place the 1930 Salt March in the 1920 movement.
What is the difference between nominal GDP growth and real GDP growth?
Nominal GDP values current output at current prices; real GDP holds prices constant through a volume measure. A price rise alone can increase nominal GDP without increasing real output. GDP measures production within the territory; GVA measures value added before adding product taxes and subtracting product subsidies.
How should Vaikhanasa and Pancharatra traditions be distinguished without imposing one temple’s rules on all temples?
Both are Vaishnava Agamic traditions concerned with worship and temple practice. Vaikhanasa is associated with the sage Vikhanasa; Pancharatra has its own samhita literature and ritual systems. Particular priestly qualifications, image arrangements and daily services depend on the temple’s governing tradition and rules.
What do Smartha and Chattada denote in the notified temple-system syllabus?
Smartha denotes traditions drawing on Smriti and commonly associated with Shankara’s Advaita and Panchayatana worship. Chattada/Sattada denotes a distinct Vaishnava service tradition included by APPSC. Recognize the terms without assuming every member performs the same duties or that one tradition’s ritual rules apply to another.
How do Shaiva, Vaishnava and Shakta Agamic orientations differ?
Shaiva traditions center Shiva, Vaishnava traditions Vishnu, and Shakta traditions Devi. Agamic texts address worship, consecration, temple organization and spiritual practice within particular lineages. Counts of texts and named subdivisions vary; do not apply a single list or a single ritual timetable to every tradition.
What distinguishes mitigation, adaptation and sustainable development?
Mitigation reduces greenhouse-gas emissions or increases sinks; adaptation reduces vulnerability to climate impacts. Sustainable development meets present needs without compromising future generations. A cyclone shelter is primarily adaptation/disaster preparedness; replacing fossil electricity with low-emission generation is primarily mitigation.
How do Nagara, Dravida and Vesara temple styles differ at a broad level?
Nagara commonly uses a curving northern shikhara; Dravida uses a tiered pyramidal southern vimana. Vesara describes Deccan forms combining or developing northern and southern features. Gopuram means gateway tower, not the sanctum’s vimana. Individual temples and historical periods vary; star-shaped plans are not a definition of every Vesara temple.
A coastal district receives a cyclone warning. Which action belongs before landfall, and how does GIS help?
Move exposed people to designated safe shelters using official evacuation instructions before hazardous winds or flooding make travel unsafe. GIS combines location-based layers such as elevation, settlements, roads and flood zones to plan routes and resources. Satellite remote sensing observes conditions; it does not itself replace local warnings or field verification.
Which dance-drama is associated with Siddhendra Yogi and Kuchipudi?
Bhamakalapam, centered on Satyabhama. Kuchipudi developed in Andhra Pradesh; CCRT associates Siddhendra Yogi with its seventeenth-century Yakshagana form. Tarangam is commonly associated with dancing on a brass plate. Distinguish the dance tradition from a claim that every performance includes that item.
What are the four Vedas and the usual functions of the four principal Vedic priests?
Rig: hymns, associated with Hotri; Yajur: sacrificial formulae and performance, Adhvaryu; Sama: chants, Udgatri; Atharva: diverse hymns and practices, conventionally associated with Brahman’s supervisory role. Samhita, Brahmana, Aranyaka and Upanishad describe broad textual layers; actual recensions differ.
What are the six Vedangas, and why should Upaveda lists be qualified?
Shiksha (phonetics), Vyakarana (grammar), Chandas (metre), Nirukta (etymology), Kalpa (ritual procedure), Jyotisha (astral timing). Ayurveda, Dhanurveda, Gandharvaveda and a fourth technical discipline occur in common Upaveda lists, but their associations vary by tradition. The six Vedangas are the stable recall list here.
A message claims to be from APPSC and demands a password through a shortened link. What is the safe verification step?
Navigate independently to the official psc.ap.gov.in portal and verify the notice or account action there. Do not disclose passwords or OTPs through the message. Phishing impersonates a trusted sender; HTTPS encrypts a connection but does not by itself prove that a site is the genuine Commission portal.
A group of 20 candidates averages 60 marks and another group of 30 averages 70. What is the combined mean?
(20 × 60 + 30 × 70) ÷ (20 + 30) = 3300 ÷ 50 = 66 marks. Weight each group mean by its group size. The unweighted mean 65 is wrong because the group sizes differ.
Which six classical astika philosophical schools are conventionally paired?
Nyaya–Vaisheshika, Samkhya–Yoga, and Purva Mimamsa–Vedanta. Traditional founder associations include Gautama, Kanada, Kapila, Patanjali, Jaimini and Badarayana respectively. These are conventional school associations; “astika” here recognizes Vedic authority rather than meaning that every school holds the same view of a creator deity.
What are the four purusharthas and the conventional four ashramas?
Purusharthas: dharma, artha, kama and moksha. Ashramas: brahmacharya, grihastha, vanaprastha and sannyasa. These are normative frameworks in Hindu thought, not a claim that every historical or contemporary Hindu must pass through four identical life stages.
What two legal distinctions matter for Hindu succession and an opposite-sex adoption?
Under Hindu Succession Act section 6, a daughter in a Mitakshara joint Hindu family is a coparcener by birth with the same rights and liabilities as a son, subject to the section’s savings. Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act section 11 requires an adoptive father of a daughter, or adoptive mother of a son, to be at least 21 years older. A general minimum child-age gap for all adoptions is not the rule.
How does Shankara’s Advaita differ from Ramanuja’s Vishishtadvaita?
Advaita teaches nonduality of Atman and Brahman, with ignorance obscuring realization. Vishishtadvaita teaches qualified nonduality: conscious selves and the material world are real and dependent on Brahman. Shankara is associated with Advaita commentaries; Ramanuja with the Sri Bhashya. Avoid treating the two accounts of the world as identical.
What connects Ramanuja, Sri Vaishnavism and prapatti?
Ramanuja systematized Vishishtadvaita and Sri Vaishnava theology. Bhakti and surrender (prapatti) are central Sri Vaishnava themes, with later schools differing in interpretation. His Sri Bhashya comments on the Brahma Sutras. Traditional life dates are often 1017–1137; the doctrine and text association matter more than treating all biographical traditions as independently established history.
Which doctrine belongs to Madhva, and which devotional form is associated with Basava?
Madhva: Dvaita, maintaining a real distinction between the supreme Vishnu and individual selves; not Nimbarka’s Dvaitadvaita. Basava: the twelfth-century Karnataka Virashaiva/Lingayat movement and Kannada vachanas. The APPSC syllabus’s transliteration does not make these distinct philosophical schools interchangeable.
How do Alvars and Nayanmars differ in devotional focus and literature?
The conventional canon recognizes 12 Vaishnava Alvars and 63 Shaiva Nayanmars. Alvar hymns form the Tamil Nalayira Divya Prabandham; Shaiva devotional hymns form the Tirumurai tradition, including Tevaram. The counts refer to received devotional canons rather than every devotee who participated in the broader movements.
If “all sanctioned alienations have prior approval” is true, what is its valid contrapositive?
If an alienation lacks prior approval, it is not a sanctioned alienation. For P ⇒ Q, the contrapositive ¬Q ⇒ ¬P is equivalent; the converse Q ⇒ P is not. Approval alone may not prove every other legal condition has been met.
Which Endowments Act provision supports the Hindu-religion requirement for an Executive Officer?
Section 29(3) of Andhra Pradesh Act 30 of 1987: an Executive Officer appointed under that section must profess Hindu religion and ceases to hold office on ceasing to profess it. Section 3(2) separately addresses specified departmental officers exercising religious-institution powers; section 19(1)(j) addresses trustees of religious institutions. Do not cite section 29(4) for the EO requirement.
How should section 6 classification be distinguished from section 15 trust-board composition?
Section 6 classifies institutions for the Act; section 15 governs appointment and composition of trust boards. They are different rules. Later amendments permit revision of section 6 monetary limits and changed section 15 board composition, so an old income-to-board-size table is unsafe without the current amendment and applicable notification. Maths have a separate section 6 list irrespective of income.
What limits the Executive Officer’s management powers under section 29?
The EO manages institutional records, funds and properties and performs duties subject to the Act, applicable rules, competent supervision and lawful trustee directions. Emergency action to protect property or pilgrims is coupled with prompt reporting/approval requirements. Appointment authority and duties vary by statutory category; the EO has no unrestricted personal power to dispose of temple property.
Which sections concern Dittam, and why is “all hereditary archaka rights were abolished” incomplete?
Section 25 concerns Dittam for institutions other than maths and attached specific endowments; section 49 addresses Dittam for maths. Section 55 concerns administrative schemes. Section 34’s abolition provisions must be read with later subsections preserving qualified recognized archaka-family service and the TTD Sannidhi Yadava exception; abolition is not a blanket denial of every later statutory right.
What does section 57 require for annual budgets and establishment expenditure?
The trustee submits the budget 90 days before the close of the financial year, to the authority prescribed for the institution’s section 6 category. The section caps provision for religious and secular establishment salaries at 30% of annual income calculated under section 65. It is not 30% of any gross cash receipt total chosen by the EO.
How do sections 69, 70 and 161 identify three different funds?
Section 69 establishes the Endowments Administration Fund; section 70 the Common Good Funds. Section 161 establishes the Archakas and employees Welfare Fund: Non-TTD institutions whose section 65 annual income exceeds ₹20 lakh contribute 3% of that annual income. For TTD, Act 30/2021 sets a ₹5 crore statutory base with 10% enhancement every five years. Do not substitute an old government-determined sum or label section 69 the welfare fund.
Why must an EO distinguish section 75 from section 80 when considering alienation?
Section 75 specifically addresses inam lands and prior Government sanction for permitted non-gift transactions. Section 80 addresses institutional immovable property and prior Commissioner sanction, with Gazette notice and the statutory sale procedure, subject to stated exceptions. A trustee’s resolution alone does not validate a sale, and the two sanction authorities are not interchangeable.
Which warning prevents use of an obsolete encroachment-removal flowchart?
Act 36 of 2023 substituted section 83 and omitted sections 84–86. Use the amended notice, objection and decision procedure rather than the old “Tribunal order then section 84 eviction” sequence. Section 87 separately addresses specified institutional/property-status disputes. A section number printed in an older syllabus is not proof that an omitted procedural provision remains operative.
Which dynasties are associated with Amaravati, the Eastern Chalukyas and Vijayanagara temple patronage?
Satavahanas are associated with the Amaravati Buddhist cultural setting; Eastern Chalukyas ruled from the Vengi region; Vijayanagara rulers, including Krishnadevaraya, patronized major South Indian temples. Temple construction and expansion often span multiple dynasties, so do not assign every structure at a site to a single patron.
Which Andhra social reformer promoted widow remarriage, and when was Andhra State formed?
Kandukuri Veeresalingam promoted widow remarriage and women’s education. Andhra State was formed on 1 October 1953 with Kurnool as capital; Andhra Pradesh followed the 1956 linguistic reorganization. The 2014 bifurcation is a separate event, not the creation date of the 1953 state.
How do Articles 25 and 26 divide individual freedom and denominational rights?
Article 25 protects all persons’ freedom of conscience and profession, practice and propagation of religion, subject to constitutional limits. Article 26 protects religious denominations’ specified collective rights, including managing religious affairs and administering property in accordance with law. Secular temple administration can be regulated; neither right authorizes unlawful discrimination or exempts every financial action from law.
Which constitutional amendments concern rural and urban local government?
The 73rd Amendment inserted Part IX for Panchayats and the Eleventh Schedule (29 subjects); the 74th inserted Part IXA for Municipalities and the Twelfth Schedule (18 subjects). Actual devolution depends on state law. The listed subjects are not an automatic transfer of all legislative power to local bodies.
What did the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014 do, and why distinguish appointed day from enactment?
It reorganized the former state into Telangana and the residuary Andhra Pradesh. The appointed day was 2 June 2014. The Act’s enactment and later administrative developments are different dates; a provision describing a transitional arrangement should not be presented as permanent current practice.
How do the Godavari and Krishna relate to Andhra Pradesh agriculture and physical geography?
Both are major east-flowing rivers reaching the Bay of Bengal and supporting delta agriculture through irrigation systems. Their basins extend beyond Andhra Pradesh, so rainfall or upstream storage elsewhere can affect downstream flows. The Eastern Ghats are discontinuous hills; avoid treating every district as a coastal plain.
How do fiscal deficit, revenue deficit and primary deficit differ?
Fiscal deficit = total expenditure minus revenue receipts and non-debt capital receipts. Revenue deficit = revenue expenditure minus revenue receipts. Primary deficit = fiscal deficit minus interest payments. Use the same accounting period and units; borrowing finances a deficit and is not counted as a non-debt receipt in this definition.
Why are mangroves important, and how does biodiversity protection differ from a blanket ban on all human activity?
Mangroves support nursery habitat, carbon storage and coastal-risk reduction; they do not make coasts immune to cyclones. Conservation categories have different legal purposes and permitted activities. A biosphere reserve label is not identical to a national park’s legal regime, and a species’ threat status is not the same as a protected-area designation.
What is the difference between hazard, exposure, vulnerability and disaster risk?
A hazard is a potentially damaging event or process; exposure is people or assets in its path; vulnerability concerns susceptibility to harm. Risk depends on their interaction and capacity, not the hazard alone. Floodplain settlement increases exposure; stronger buildings and warnings can reduce vulnerability and consequences.
How do total internal reflection and an ideal transformer each depend on conditions?
Total internal reflection requires light traveling from higher to lower refractive index with incidence angle above the critical angle. An ideal transformer obeys Vs/Vp = Ns/Np and conserves input/output power; it requires changing magnetic flux, so steady DC does not produce normal continuous transformer operation. Real transformers have losses.
What does global warming potential compare, and why is a time horizon essential?
GWP compares the integrated warming effect of a pulse emission of a gas with an equal mass of CO2 over a stated period. CO2 has reference GWP 1. A 20-year and a 100-year value need not match; per-molecule potency and atmospheric concentration are not the definition of GWP.
How do PSLV and LVM3 differ in stage arrangement?
PSLV conventionally uses four alternating solid–liquid–solid–liquid stages. LVM3 combines solid strap-on boosters, a liquid core and a cryogenic upper stage. These are launch-vehicle architectures, not a rule that any payload can be sent to any orbit without regard to mass and mission configuration.
How are median, variance and coefficient of variation interpreted with their conditions?
Sort the data: odd n gives the central observation; even n gives the mean of the two central observations. Population variance divides squared deviations by n; the usual unbiased sample estimator divides by n−1 for n>1. CV = SD/mean ×100%; use a meaningful positive ratio-scale mean, not a zero or arbitrary-origin denominator.
If a positive quantity rises 25%, what percentage fall restores its original value?
Start with 100: it rises to 125. A fall of 25/125 ×100 = 20% restores 100. In general, after an x% rise with x>0, the restoring fall is 100x/(100+x) percent. Equal percentage rises and falls do not cancel because their bases differ.
A person walks 3 km east and then 4 km north. What are distance and displacement?
Distance traveled is 3+4 = 7 km. Straight-line displacement is √(3²+4²) = 5 km, northeast of the start. Distance is a scalar path length; displacement has direction. The Pythagorean step applies because east and north are perpendicular.
What is the smaller angle between clock hands at 3:30?
Minute hand: 6×30 = 180°. Hour hand: 30×3 + 0.5×30 = 105°. Difference = 75°, already below 180°, so the smaller angle is 75°. For a general time use h modulo 12, d=|30h−5.5m|, then min(d,360−d).
Frequently Asked Questions
Which APPSC notification does this set follow?
Notification 23/2026, the detailed Executive Officer Grade-III notice dated 16 October 2026. It provides two written CBRT papers and a qualifying Computer Proficiency Test (CPT). Older screening-test conditions from earlier recruitments must not be silently carried forward.
What are the written question count, time and negative marking?
Paper I and Paper II each have 150 questions, 150 marks and 150 minutes: 300 questions/marks and 300 minutes in total. One-third of the mark assigned to a question is deducted for a wrong answer. Each written paper contributes 50% of the 300 written marks; the notice does not publish subtopic percentages.
What is the qualifying CPT?
The practical Computer Proficiency Test is 60 minutes for 100 marks. The minimum marks are 30 for SC/ST/PBD, 35 for BC and 40 for OC in the published CPT table. It is qualifying; written-exam selection is conditional on qualifying it. It is separate from the two 150-minute written papers.
Who is eligible under Notification 23/2026?
The notice requires a recognized Bachelor’s degree or accepted equivalent, Hindu religion under section 29(3), and the stated age range of 18–44 as of 1 July 2026, subject to specified relaxations and other conditions. Eligibility is not established merely by completing these cards; consult the full notice for category, local-status, qualification and document rules.
What fee and written qualifying marks does the current notice state?
The standard fee is ₹250 application processing plus ₹80 examination fee, totaling ₹330. Specified applicants receive examination-fee exemption under paragraph 8; processing-fee treatment and documentary conditions must be checked there. The written aggregate minima are 40% for OC/Sportspersons/Ex-servicemen/EWS, 35% for BC and 30% for SC/ST/PBD, subject to the notice’s provisions; reaching a minimum does not guarantee selection.
How is the 50-card allocation related to the official syllabus?
There are 25 Paper I and 25 Paper II cards, matching the two equal-mark written papers. This is a compact editorial selection, not complete teaching of every notified topic. Current affairs require fresh primary-source reading; temple ritual traditions vary and legal provisions must be read with amendments. No subtopic quota is attributed to APPSC.
Which Endowments Act version should I use?
Use Andhra Pradesh Act 30 of 1987 together with applicable amendments and notifications. The India Code consolidation alone omits later changes: Act 36/2023 replaced section 83 and omitted sections 84–86, and Act 26/2024 changed trust-board composition. The linked Gazette appendices also contain Act 12/2026; its commencement clause requires a notification. Do not substitute a Telangana adaptation or an old board-size/eviction table.
Is this a lifetime certificate, and is there a fixed retake waiting period?
This is a competitive government recruitment, not a lifetime certification examination. Selection, appointment and service conditions are separate. A future application depends on the next recruitment notice and then-current eligibility; the reviewed notice does not establish a generic fixed-day retake interval or permanent reusable pass result.
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