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100+ Free UPSC CMS Practice Questions

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Question 1
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According to standard growth milestones, at approximately what age does a healthy infant typically begin to sit without support?

A
B
C
D
to track
2026 Statistics

Key Facts: UPSC CMS Exam

240

Total MCQs (120 per paper)

UPSC CMS Scheme of Examination

500

Written Marks (250 + 250)

UPSC CMS Scheme of Examination

1/3

Negative Marking per Wrong Answer

UPSC CMS notification

2 hours

Duration per Paper

UPSC CMS Scheme of Examination

Rs. 200

Application Fee (General/OBC male)

UPSC CMS notification

100 marks

Personality Test (Interview)

UPSC CMS Scheme of Examination

UPSC CMS is a once-a-year, computer-based exam recruiting MBBS doctors into Group A medical posts. The written stage has two 250-mark papers (500 total), each with 120 MCQs in 2 hours: Paper I covers General Medicine and Paediatrics; Paper II covers Surgery, Gynaecology & Obstetrics, and Preventive & Social Medicine. One-third negative marking applies per wrong answer, and qualifiers attend a 100-mark Personality Test.

Sample UPSC CMS Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your UPSC CMS exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 55-year-old man presents with crushing retrosternal chest pain radiating to the left arm for 30 minutes. His ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded?
A.Left anterior descending artery
B.Right coronary artery
C.Left circumflex artery
D.Left main coronary artery
Explanation: ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF indicates an inferior wall myocardial infarction, which is most commonly caused by occlusion of the right coronary artery (RCA) in the majority of people who are right-dominant.
2Which of the following is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in adults?
A.Mycoplasma pneumoniae
B.Streptococcus pneumoniae
C.Klebsiella pneumoniae
D.Legionella pneumophila
Explanation: Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus) is the single most common identifiable cause of community-acquired pneumonia in adults worldwide, classically causing lobar consolidation with rusty sputum.
3A patient with longstanding diabetes develops bilateral lower-limb numbness in a 'stocking' distribution. This pattern is most characteristic of which complication?
A.Mononeuritis multiplex
B.Distal symmetric polyneuropathy
C.Diabetic amyotrophy
D.Autonomic neuropathy
Explanation: Distal symmetric (sensorimotor) polyneuropathy is the most common form of diabetic neuropathy, presenting with length-dependent, symmetrical 'glove-and-stocking' sensory loss beginning in the feet.
4Which antitubercular drug is most commonly associated with optic neuritis as an adverse effect?
A.Isoniazid
B.Rifampicin
C.Ethambutol
D.Pyrazinamide
Explanation: Ethambutol causes dose-dependent retrobulbar optic neuritis, presenting as reduced visual acuity and impaired red-green colour discrimination. Visual acuity and colour vision should be monitored during therapy.
5A 30-year-old woman has fatigue, cold intolerance, weight gain, and constipation. Investigations show raised TSH and low free T4. What is the diagnosis?
A.Primary hypothyroidism
B.Secondary hypothyroidism
C.Subclinical hyperthyroidism
D.Graves' disease
Explanation: A high TSH with low free T4 indicates primary hypothyroidism, where thyroid gland failure leads to compensatory pituitary TSH secretion. Hashimoto's thyroiditis is the most common cause in iodine-sufficient areas.
6In a patient with chronic kidney disease, which type of anaemia is most typically seen and what is its principal mechanism?
A.Microcytic anaemia due to iron deficiency
B.Normocytic normochromic anaemia due to erythropoietin deficiency
C.Macrocytic anaemia due to folate deficiency
D.Haemolytic anaemia due to autoantibodies
Explanation: Chronic kidney disease typically causes a normocytic, normochromic anaemia primarily because the failing kidneys produce inadequate erythropoietin, reducing red cell production. It is managed with erythropoiesis-stimulating agents and iron.
7Which of the following ECG findings is most characteristic of hyperkalaemia?
A.U waves
B.Tall, peaked T waves
C.Prolonged QT interval
D.Delta waves
Explanation: Tall, peaked (tented) T waves are an early ECG sign of hyperkalaemia. As potassium rises further, the PR interval prolongs, P waves flatten, and the QRS widens, eventually leading to a sine-wave pattern.
8A young adult presents with massive haematemesis. Examination reveals splenomegaly, ascites, and dilated abdominal wall veins. What is the most likely underlying cause of the bleeding?
A.Peptic ulcer disease
B.Oesophageal varices from portal hypertension
C.Mallory-Weiss tear
D.Gastric carcinoma
Explanation: Splenomegaly, ascites, and caput medusae indicate portal hypertension, most often from cirrhosis. Bleeding oesophageal varices are the classic cause of massive haematemesis in this setting.
9Which one of the following is the drug of choice for acute anaphylaxis?
A.Intravenous hydrocortisone
B.Intramuscular adrenaline (epinephrine)
C.Intravenous chlorpheniramine
D.Nebulised salbutamol
Explanation: Intramuscular adrenaline into the anterolateral thigh is the first-line, life-saving treatment for anaphylaxis. It reverses bronchospoasm, supports blood pressure, and reduces mucosal oedema rapidly.
10A farm worker is brought in with pinpoint pupils, excessive salivation, muscle fasciculations, and difficulty breathing after pesticide exposure. Which antidote should be given first?
A.Atropine
B.Pralidoxime
C.Naloxone
D.Flumazenil
Explanation: This is organophosphate (anticholinesterase) poisoning, producing a cholinergic crisis. Atropine is the first-line antidote that blocks muscarinic effects such as bronchorrhoea and bradycardia; pralidoxime is added to reactivate cholinesterase.

About the UPSC CMS Exam

The Combined Medical Services Examination (CMS) is a national, computer-based objective examination conducted once a year by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) to recruit MBBS-qualified medical officers into Group A government services such as the Central Health Service, Indian Railways, and Delhi municipal bodies. The written stage has two papers of 250 marks each, taken on the same day: Paper I covers General Medicine and Paediatrics, and Paper II covers Surgery, Gynaecology & Obstetrics, and Preventive & Social Medicine. Each paper contains 120 multiple-choice questions to be answered in two hours, with a negative marking of one-third of the marks for every wrong answer. Candidates who qualify the 500-mark written examination are called for a 100-mark Personality Test, giving a total of 600 marks. The questions are set in English at the MBBS standard.

Questions

240 scored questions

Time Limit

2 hours per paper (Paper I and Paper II)

Passing Score

Year-specific qualifying cut-off set by UPSC; no fixed pass mark is published

Exam Fee

Rs. 200 (General/OBC male); free for female, SC, ST, and PwBD candidates (Union Public Service Commission (UPSC))

UPSC CMS Exam Content Outline

40%

General Medicine

Cardiology, respiratory, GI, genito-urinary, neurology, haematology, endocrinology, metabolic disorders, infectious diseases, dermatology, psychiatry, emergency medicine, and poisoning (96 questions in Paper I)

10%

Paediatrics

Childhood emergencies, newborn care, developmental milestones, immunisation, nutrition, and national child-health programmes (24 questions in Paper I)

17%

Surgery

General surgery, trauma, ENT, ophthalmology, orthopaedics, anaesthesia, urology, shock and fluid management, and surgical ethics (40 questions in Paper II)

17%

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Antenatal care, labour, obstetric emergencies, gynaecological disorders, contraception, and family planning (40 questions in Paper II)

16%

Preventive & Social Medicine

Epidemiology, biostatistics, communicable diseases, environmental health, nutrition, demography, health planning, and national health programmes (40 questions in Paper II)

How to Pass the UPSC CMS Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Year-specific qualifying cut-off set by UPSC; no fixed pass mark is published
  • Exam length: 240 questions
  • Time limit: 2 hours per paper (Paper I and Paper II)
  • Exam fee: Rs. 200 (General/OBC male); free for female, SC, ST, and PwBD candidates

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

UPSC CMS Study Tips from Top Performers

1Anchor preparation in standard MBBS textbooks; CMS questions are set at the undergraduate clinical and preclinical level across all five subjects.
2Prioritise General Medicine, which contributes 96 of the 120 questions in Paper I, then layer Paediatrics on top for full Paper I coverage.
3Practise under one-third negative marking so you learn when an educated guess is worth the risk and when to leave a question blank.
4Master Preventive & Social Medicine fundamentals — epidemiology, biostatistics, and India's national health programmes are high-yield and scoring.
5Drill obstetric and surgical emergencies, since these recur across CMS papers and reward quick, accurate decision-making.
6Solve previous-year CMS question papers and full timed mocks to build the speed needed for 120 questions in two hours per paper.
7Confirm the current UPSC notification each cycle for exam date, eligibility, attempts, and centre details before applying.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the UPSC CMS examination?

The Combined Medical Services Examination (CMS) is a national computer-based exam conducted once a year by the Union Public Service Commission to recruit MBBS-qualified medical officers into Group A government services such as the Central Health Service and Indian Railways.

What is the exam pattern and how many questions are there?

The written stage has two papers of 250 marks each, taken on the same day. Each paper has 120 objective multiple-choice questions to be answered in two hours, for 240 questions in total. Qualified candidates then attend a 100-mark Personality Test.

What subjects are covered in Paper I and Paper II?

Paper I covers General Medicine (96 questions) and Paediatrics (24 questions). Paper II covers Surgery, Gynaecology & Obstetrics, and Preventive & Social Medicine, with 40 questions from each subject.

Is there negative marking in UPSC CMS?

Yes. One-third of the marks assigned to a question is deducted for each wrong answer. Marking more than one option counts as wrong, and there is no penalty for questions left unanswered.

What score do I need to pass?

UPSC does not publish a fixed pass mark. Instead it sets a year-specific qualifying cut-off (which varies by category) for the written examination, and final selection is based on combined written and Personality Test marks out of 600.

What is the application fee and who is exempt?

The application fee is Rs. 200 for General and OBC male candidates. Female candidates and those from SC, ST, and PwBD categories are exempt from the fee.

Who is eligible to apply for UPSC CMS?

Candidates must hold an MBBS degree (or have passed the final MBBS examination, completing internship before joining as required) and meet the age limit, generally 21 to 32 years with relaxations for reserved categories, along with nationality and physical-standard requirements.

How often is the exam held and is it online?

The CMS examination is conducted once a year as a computer-based test at designated centres across India. Both papers are taken on the same day, and the question paper is in English.