DANB CDA Exam Flashcards

Q: What component exams make up the DANB CDA?

The CDA credential requires Radiation Health and Safety (RHS), Infection Control (ICE), and General Chairside Assisting (GC). Local metadata lists 245 total questions across the three components.

Q: What score is needed to pass DANB CDA components?

Each component requires a minimum scaled score of 400 on DANB's 100-900 scale.

Q: Do the CDA component exams need to be passed together?

No. Components may be taken separately, but local metadata notes that RHS, ICE, and GC must be passed within a 5-year window for CDA certification.

Q: What should I use these cards for?

Use them to recall exam facts, chairside zones, dental anatomy terms, material handling, infection-control sequence, sterilization monitoring, and radiography safety principles.

Question 1

CDA component exams

Accepted Answer

DANB CDA certification requires RHS, ICE, and GC: Radiation Health and Safety, Infection Control, and General Chairside Assisting.

Question 2

CDA question count

Accepted Answer

Local metadata lists 245 total questions: RHS 75, ICE 75, and GC 95. Time management should reflect the size of each component.

Question 3

DANB scaled passing score

Accepted Answer

Each CDA component requires a minimum scaled score of 400 on a 100-900 scale. Passing one component does not automatically pass the others.

Question 4

Five-year component window

Accepted Answer

RHS, ICE, and GC must be passed within the required component window noted in local metadata. Track component dates if you take them separately.

Question 5

Four-handed dentistry zones

Accepted Answer

For a right-handed operator, the operator's zone is roughly 7-12 o'clock, static zone 12-2, assistant's zone 2-4, and transfer zone 4-7.

Question 6

Instrument transfer zone

Accepted Answer

The transfer zone is where instruments are exchanged across the patient's chest area. Keep transfers controlled, predictable, and away from the patient's face.

Question 7

Universal Numbering System

Accepted Answer

Permanent teeth are numbered 1-32, beginning at the maxillary right third molar and moving around the arches. Primary teeth use letters A-T.

Question 8

Buccal vs lingual

Accepted Answer

Buccal surfaces face the cheek on posterior teeth. Lingual surfaces face the tongue.

Question 9

Mesial vs distal

Accepted Answer

Mesial means toward the midline of the dental arch. Distal means away from the midline.

Question 10

Occlusal surface

Accepted Answer

The occlusal surface is the chewing surface of posterior teeth. Anterior teeth have an incisal edge rather than an occlusal table.

Question 11

G.V. Black Class I

Accepted Answer

Class I restorations involve pits and fissures, commonly on occlusal surfaces of posterior teeth.

Question 12

G.V. Black Class II

Accepted Answer

Class II restorations involve proximal surfaces of posterior teeth, often requiring a matrix system for contour and contact.

Question 13

Medical history review

Accepted Answer

Review allergies, medications, systemic conditions, surgeries, pregnancy status, and previous dental complications before treatment.

Question 14

Vital signs

Accepted Answer

Blood pressure, pulse, respiration, and temperature help screen for medical risk and establish a baseline before dental procedures.

Question 15

Syncope response

Accepted Answer

Stop treatment, position the patient safely, maintain airway, monitor vital signs, and alert the dentist. Syncope is commonly linked to anxiety or low blood pressure.

Question 16

Latex allergy

Accepted Answer

Signs may include itching, rash, wheezing, or anaphylaxis. Use latex-free gloves and supplies for patients or staff with known sensitivity.

Question 17

Amalgam

Accepted Answer

Amalgam is a durable metallic restorative material. Handle scrap and waste according to amalgam waste rules; do not dispose of it as ordinary trash.

Question 18

Composite resin

Accepted Answer

Composite is tooth-colored and bonds to etched and primed tooth structure. It is technique-sensitive and commonly light-cured in increments.

Question 19

Glass ionomer

Accepted Answer

Glass ionomer bonds chemically to tooth structure and releases fluoride. It is useful for certain liners, bases, and restorations where fluoride release matters.

Question 20

Alginate impression

Accepted Answer

Alginate is an irreversible hydrocolloid used for preliminary impressions. It should be poured promptly because dimensional stability is limited.

Question 21

Elastomeric impression material

Accepted Answer

Elastomeric materials provide more accurate final impressions than alginate. They are used when detail and dimensional stability are critical.

Question 22

Sealants

Accepted Answer

Sealants protect pits and fissures, especially on posterior teeth, by blocking plaque and food from deep grooves.

Question 23

Rubber dam isolation

Accepted Answer

A rubber dam isolates the tooth, improves visibility, controls moisture, and reduces aspiration or swallowing risk during many procedures.

Question 24

Standard Precautions

Accepted Answer

Treat all blood, saliva, and body fluids as potentially infectious. Standard Precautions apply to every patient, not only known high-risk patients.

Question 25

OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard

Accepted Answer

Requires an exposure control plan, training, PPE, safer sharps practices, hepatitis B vaccination offer, and post-exposure follow-up.

Question 26

Hand hygiene

Accepted Answer

Perform hand hygiene before and after patient care, after glove removal, and whenever hands are contaminated. Gloves do not replace hand hygiene.

Question 27

PPE sequence

Accepted Answer

Don PPE before exposure risk and remove it to avoid self-contamination. Gloves are usually removed early, and hand hygiene follows removal.

Question 28

Critical instruments

Accepted Answer

Critical instruments penetrate soft tissue or bone and must be sterilized before reuse.

Question 29

Semicritical instruments

Accepted Answer

Semicritical instruments contact mucous membranes but do not penetrate tissue. Sterilize heat-tolerant items whenever possible.

Question 30

Noncritical items

Accepted Answer

Noncritical items contact intact skin only. They require cleaning and low- or intermediate-level disinfection based on contamination risk.

Question 31

Instrument processing flow

Accepted Answer

The safe sequence is receive, clean, package, sterilize, store, and deliver. Dirty and clean areas must stay separated.

Question 32

Ultrasonic cleaner

Accepted Answer

Ultrasonic cleaning uses sound waves and solution to remove debris before sterilization. It reduces hand scrubbing and sharps injury risk.

Question 33

Biological indicator

Accepted Answer

A spore test verifies that sterilization kills resistant microorganisms. It is the strongest routine evidence that a sterilizer cycle works.

Question 34

Chemical indicator

Accepted Answer

A chemical indicator shows exposure to certain sterilization conditions, such as heat or steam, but it does not prove that sterilization killed spores.

Question 35

Surface barriers

Accepted Answer

Barriers protect hard-to-clean surfaces from contamination. Replace them between patients and disinfect the surface if contamination is suspected.

Question 36

Sharps injury log

Accepted Answer

OSHA requires documentation of sharps injuries to track device type, location, and incident circumstances while protecting employee privacy.

Question 37

Dental unit waterlines

Accepted Answer

Waterlines can develop biofilm. Follow manufacturer and office protocols for treatment, testing, flushing, and maintenance.

Question 38

Regulated waste

Accepted Answer

Regulated waste includes items capable of releasing blood or other potentially infectious material, plus contaminated sharps. It requires proper containment and labeling.

Question 39

ALARA

Accepted Answer

ALARA means As Low As Reasonably Achievable. Use selection criteria, proper technique, shielding when indicated, and retakes only when necessary.

Question 40

Occupational radiation limit

Accepted Answer

Local DANB practice content uses 5 rem, or 50 mSv, per year as the NCRP whole-body occupational maximum permissible dose.

Question 41

Dosimeter

Accepted Answer

A dosimeter monitors occupational radiation exposure. It should be worn as directed and not left near radiation sources when not in use.

Question 42

Paralleling technique

Accepted Answer

The receptor is placed parallel to the long axis of the tooth and the central ray is directed perpendicular to both. It generally produces less distortion.

Question 43

Bisecting-angle technique

Accepted Answer

The central ray is directed perpendicular to an imaginary line that bisects the angle between the tooth and receptor. Incorrect angulation causes distortion.

Question 44

Bitewing radiograph

Accepted Answer

Bitewings show crowns of maxillary and mandibular teeth and the alveolar crest. They are useful for detecting interproximal caries and bone level.

Question 45

Cone cut

Accepted Answer

A cone cut is an unexposed clear area caused by the x-ray beam not covering the entire receptor. Correct PID alignment prevents it.

Question 46

Elongation

Accepted Answer

Elongation makes teeth appear too long and is caused by insufficient vertical angulation in bisecting technique.

Question 47

Foreshortening

Accepted Answer

Foreshortening makes teeth appear too short and is caused by excessive vertical angulation.

Question 48

Overlapped contacts

Accepted Answer

Overlapped contacts are usually caused by incorrect horizontal angulation. Direct the central ray through the interproximal spaces.

Question 49

kVp

Accepted Answer

Kilovoltage peak controls beam energy and image contrast. Higher kVp creates more penetrating x-rays and a longer scale of contrast.

Question 50

mA and exposure time

Accepted Answer

Milliamperage and exposure time control the quantity of x-rays produced. Increasing either one increases receptor exposure.

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DANB Certified Dental Assistant (CDA)

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