Free CNN Exam Flashcards
Memorize 50 essential terms and definitions for the Certified Nephrology Nurse (CNN) Examination. See the term, recall the definition, then flip to check yourself.
What is the educational requirement for the CNN exam?
There is no degree requirement. NNCC's role-based update (effective Summer 2026) removed the former baccalaureate (BSN) requirement; you only need a full, unrestricted RN license plus the required nephrology experience and continuing education. Both CNN and CDN are now open to all RNs regardless of degree.
Filter by Topic
Jump to Card
About These CNN Flashcards
These 50 flashcards are designed to help you memorize key terms and definitions for the Certified Nephrology Nurse (CNN) Examination. Each card shows a term on the front and its definition on the back—the classic flashcard format for vocabulary memorization. Use these alongside our practice questions to build both recall and comprehension.
Topics Covered
Complete Flashcard Reference
Review every term in this set. Open any term to reveal its definition.
What is the educational requirement for the CNN exam?
There is no degree requirement. NNCC's role-based update (effective Summer 2026) removed the former baccalaureate (BSN) requirement; you only need a full, unrestricted RN license plus the required nephrology experience and continuing education. Both CNN and CDN are now open to all RNs regardless of degree.
How many hours of nephrology nursing experience are required for the CNN exam?
At least 2,500 hours of nephrology nursing practice as an RN within the 2 years prior to application (in areas such as home dialysis, acute kidney injury, critical care, CKD management, or kidney transplant).
How long is the CNN credential valid, and what is required for recertification?
The CNN certification is valid for 3 years. Recertification requires a full, unrestricted RN license, at least 1,500 hours of nephrology experience during the cycle, and 45 contact hours of continuing education (minimum 15 nephrology-specific) — or passing the exam again, which waives the CE requirement.
What is the question count, time limit, and passing score of the CNN exam?
The exam consists of 150 multiple-choice questions with a 3-hour time limit. The passing standard is a scaled score of 95 (corresponding to approximately 70% correct).
Which clinical area represents the largest percentage of the current CNN exam blueprint?
Concepts of Kidney Disease is the largest area at approximately 38%, followed by Hemodialysis (~30%), Peritoneal Dialysis (~22%), Transplant (~5%), and Acute Therapies (~5%). A revised blueprint effective September 1, 2026 reweights these to Concepts of Kidney Disease 30%, Acute Inpatient Therapies 25%, Peritoneal Dialysis 20%, Home Hemodialysis 15%, and Transplant 10%.
Where is erythropoietin (EPO) produced in the kidneys, and what is its role?
EPO is produced by peritubular interstitial cells in the renal cortex. It stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells. In CKD, destruction of these cells leads to anemia.
How does the fractional excretion of sodium (FENa) help distinguish prerenal azotemia from acute tubular necrosis (ATN)?
A FENa < 1% indicates prerenal azotemia (kidneys conserve sodium due to hypoperfusion). A FENa > 2% indicates ATN (tubular damage impairs sodium reabsorption, causing sodium loss in urine).
What GFR ranges define Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) Stages 3a, 3b, 4, and 5?
Stage 3a: GFR 45–59 mL/min; Stage 3b: GFR 30–44 mL/min; Stage 4: GFR 15–29 mL/min (severe reduction); Stage 5: GFR < 15 mL/min (kidney failure, dialysis indication).
What is the classic tetrad of clinical findings that defines nephrotic syndrome?
1) Severe proteinuria (> 3.5 g/24h), 2) Hypoalbuminemia (< 3.0 g/dL), 3) Generalized edema, and 4) Hyperlipidemia. It results from increased glomerular permeability.
Why does chronic kidney disease lead to secondary hyperparathyroidism and bone disease (CKD-MBD)?
Kidneys fail to excrete phosphorus and cannot convert vitamin D to its active form (calcitriol). Hypocalcemia and hyperphosphatemia result, stimulating parathyroid hormone (PTH) release, which resorbs calcium from bone.
What ECG changes progress as serum potassium levels rise, and what is the immediate stabilizer?
Peaked T waves appear first, followed by PR prolongation, QRS widening, and loss of P waves. IV Calcium Gluconate must be given immediately to stabilize the cardiac cell membrane.
Why are ACE inhibitors and ARBs contraindicated in bilateral renal artery stenosis?
They block angiotensin II, preventing efferent arteriolar constriction, which is necessary to maintain glomerular filtration pressure when renal perfusion is compromised. This can precipitate acute kidney injury (AKI).
What are the three categories of albuminuria based on the Urine Albumin-to-Creatinine Ratio (ACR)?
Category A1 (Normal/mild): < 30 mg/g; Category A2 (Moderate): 30–300 mg/g; Category A3 (Severe): > 300 mg/g. Severe albuminuria is a key predictor of CKD progression.
What are the common causes and classic clinical triad of acute interstitial nephritis (AIN)?
AIN is usually drug-induced (NSAIDs, antibiotics, PPIs) causing immune-mediated tubulointerstitial inflammation. The classic triad is fever, rash, and arthralgia (often with eosinophiluria).
What central nervous, gastrointestinal, and dermatologic signs indicate severe uremia in advanced CKD?
Asterixis (flapping tremor), encephalopathy/confusion, metallic taste, nausea/vomiting, anorexia, pericarditis, and uremic frost on the skin. These indicate urgent need for renal replacement therapy.
What is the primary physical mechanism of solute removal during hemodialysis, and what factors optimize it?
Diffusion, which is the movement of solutes down a concentration gradient from blood to dialysate. It is optimized by maximizing concentration gradients, countercurrent flow, and dialyzer surface area.
How is fluid removed during hemodialysis (ultrafiltration)?
Fluid is removed by convection/ultrafiltration, which is driven by a hydrostatic pressure gradient (transmembrane pressure, TMP) created by the dialysis machine across the semipermeable membrane.
What are the minimum KDOQI adequacy targets for spKt/V and URR in thrice-weekly hemodialysis?
Single-pool Kt/V (spKt/V) target is ≥ 1.4 per session (minimum delivered 1.2). The Urea Reduction Ratio (URR) target is ≥ 70% (minimum delivered 65%).
Why is an arteriovenous fistula (AVF) the preferred access, and how long does it take to mature?
An AVF uses native vessels, offering the lowest infection and thrombosis rates. It takes 6–12 weeks to mature (vein wall thickens and dilates to handle high blood flow).
What physical assessment findings confirm patency of an AV fistula or graft?
A palpable thrill (continuous vibration) and an audible bruit (low-pitched, continuous rushing sound). A high-pitched, systolic-only bruit suggests stenosis; absence of both indicates thrombosis.
What causes Dialysis Disequilibrium Syndrome (DDS), and how is it prevented in new patients?
Rapid clearance of urea decreases blood osmolality, causing water to shift into brain cells, leading to cerebral edema. It is prevented by limiting solute clearance during initial treatments (lower Qb, shorter time).
What are the priority nursing interventions for a patient experiencing symptomatic intradialytic hypotension?
Place patient in Trendelenburg position (unless contraindicated), reduce or stop ultrafiltration (UF), administer a normal saline bolus (100–250 mL) as prescribed, and check vitals.
What is vascular access steal syndrome, and what are the key clinical signs?
It occurs when blood flow is diverted from the distal extremity into the low-resistance access. Signs include coldness, pain, paresthesias, pallor, and weak distal pulses in the access limb.
What is the maximum allowable chloramine concentration in dialysis water, and what occurs if it is exceeded?
The AAMI limit is < 0.1 mg/L (or 0.1 ppm). Excess chloramines pass through the dialyzer membrane, causing hemolysis (rupturing red blood cells) and methemoglobinemia.
What is the function of the carbon tanks in a dialysis water system, and how are they monitored?
Carbon tanks remove chlorine and chloramines through adsorption. Dialysis systems require two tanks in series. Chloramine testing must be performed before the first patient shift and every 4 hours from the sample port between the tanks.
What is the difference between Type A and Type B dialyzer reactions (First Use Syndrome)?
Type A is an immediate, IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction (usually to ethylene oxide sterilant) causing dyspnea, hives, and anaphylaxis. Type B is a milder, complement-activated reaction causing chest and back pain 20–40 minutes into treatment.
What patient conditions absolutely contraindicate the reuse of hemodialyzers?
Active hepatitis B infection (due to high transmission risk), positive HIV or hepatitis C status (per facility policy to prevent cross-contamination), and systemic infections/sepsis.
What is the difference between the 'rope ladder' and 'buttonhole' cannulation techniques?
Rope ladder rotates needle sites along the length of the access to prevent aneurysm formation. Buttonhole uses constant sites and angles to create a mature tract, suitable for self-cannulation, but has a higher infection risk.
What is the emergency positioning for a patient with a suspected venous air embolism, and why?
Place the patient in left lateral Trendelenburg (Durant's Maneuver). This traps the air bolus in the apex of the right ventricle, preventing it from entering the pulmonary artery and blocking outflow.
What defines a high-flux dialyzer membrane compared to a low-flux membrane?
High-flux membranes have larger pores and higher ultrafiltration coefficients (KUF). They allow clearance of larger 'middle molecules' (e.g., beta-2 microglobulin) and faster fluid removal.
What is the primary osmotic agent in standard peritoneal dialysis dialysate, and what are its standard concentrations?
Dextrose (glucose monohydrate) is the osmotic agent, available in 1.5%, 2.5%, and 4.25% concentrations. Higher concentrations create a larger osmotic gradient, increasing fluid removal (ultrafiltration).
What is the difference between CAPD and APD?
Continuous Ambulatory Peritoneal Dialysis (CAPD) is manual, with 4–5 exchanges during waking hours and long overnight dwells. Automated Peritoneal Dialysis (APD) uses a cycler machine to perform multiple exchanges overnight, leaving the day clear.
What diagnostic findings in peritoneal fluid confirm a diagnosis of PD-related peritonitis?
Cloudy dialysate effluent with a white blood cell count > 100/mcL (with at least 50% polymorphonuclear neutrophils), clinical symptoms (abdominal pain, rebound tenderness), and/or positive Gram stain/culture.
What is a Peritoneal Equilibration Test (PET) and how does it guide PD prescriptions?
A PET measures the rate of solute transfer (creatinine and glucose) across the peritoneal membrane. It classifies patients as high, high-average, low-average, or low transporters. High transporters need shorter, faster dwells (like APD); low transporters need longer dwells (like CAPD).
What symptoms distinguish a PD catheter tunnel infection from a simple exit-site infection?
Exit-site infection shows redness and purulence at the external opening. Tunnel infection shows pain, swelling, tenderness, and erythema along the subcutaneous pathway of the catheter, carrying a high risk of peritonitis and requiring systemic antibiotics.
What causes fibrin formation in PD effluent, and how is it managed?
Fibrin appears as white, gelatinous shreds in the effluent, often stimulated by peritoneal inflammation or peritonitis. It can block the catheter. It is treated by adding heparin (e.g., 500–1000 units/L) to the dialysate bags as prescribed.
Why is constipation a frequent cause of poor PD dialysate inflow or drainage, and what is the management?
Distended bowel loops compress the peritoneal catheter and alter its position. Management includes stool softeners and daily bowel regimens (avoiding phosphorus/magnesium-containing laxatives).
What is Encapsulating Peritoneal Sclerosis (EPS) and what are its symptoms?
EPS is a rare, severe complication where the peritoneal membrane becomes thickened and fibrotic, leading to bowel obstruction. Symptoms include persistent nausea, vomiting, malnutrition, and ascites. It often requires stopping PD.
What is the priority nursing care for a newly placed PD catheter during the postoperative healing phase?
Maintain sterile dressings, avoid catheter manipulation, perform flush-only exchanges as ordered to prevent fibrin occlusion, and delay routine dialysis use for at least 10–14 days to allow healing and prevent leaks.
What is the minimum weekly Kt/V target for adequacy in peritoneal dialysis patients?
The KDOQI guideline recommends a minimum total (peritoneal + residual renal) weekly Kt/V of 1.7. This requires a 24-hour urine and dialysate collection.
What is the standard triple-drug immunosuppressive regimen for a kidney transplant recipient?
1) A calcineurin inhibitor (CNI: Tacrolimus or Cyclosporine), 2) An antimetabolite (Mycophenolate Mofetil or Azathioprine), and 3) A corticosteroid (Prednisone).
What is a major adverse effect of calcineurin inhibitors (tacrolimus/cyclosporine) on the kidneys, and how is it monitored?
Nephrotoxicity. CNIs cause vasoconstriction of the afferent arterioles, reducing GFR and raising creatinine. Levels must be monitored via periodic trough blood levels (taken just before the next dose).
How do hyperacute, acute, and chronic kidney transplant rejections differ in timing and mechanism?
Hyperacute occurs within minutes/hours (pre-existing antibodies; requires immediate graft removal). Acute occurs weeks/months post-transplant (T-cell mediated; treatable with high-dose steroids/thymoglobulin). Chronic occurs over years (progressive fibrosis; untreatable, leads to graft loss).
What water testing responsibility is unique to home hemodialysis (HHD) patients?
HHD patients must test their home water system for chlorine/chloramines prior to every treatment session and perform periodic bacterial/endotoxin cultures of the product water.
What is the most common viral opportunistic infection in kidney transplant recipients, and when does it typically occur?
Cytomegalovirus (CMV). It typically occurs 1–6 months post-transplant (when immunosuppression is highest). Symptoms include fever, leukopenia, and organ-specific disease (pneumonitis, colitis). Prevented with valganciclovir.
What are the CMS Conditions for Coverage (CfC) for End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) facilities?
Federal regulations that dialysis facilities must meet to receive Medicare reimbursement. They mandate patient rights, water quality standards, reuse safety, interdisciplinary plans of care, and quality assessment/performance improvement (QAPI) programs.
What is the primary focus of the Quality Assessment and Performance Improvement (QAPI) program in a dialysis unit?
Systematically tracking clinical outcomes (adequacy, anemia, bone disease, vascular access, infections) to identify gaps, implement corrective plans (clinical audits), and improve patient safety and care processes.
What is the nurse's role when an ESRD patient expresses the desire to withdraw from dialysis treatment?
Support patient autonomy, assess for depression/cognitive issues, ensure the patient understands the consequences of withdrawal, facilitate interdisciplinary support (palliative care/social work), and document the decision.
How often must the interdisciplinary team review and update a hemodialysis patient's plan of care?
Initially within 30 days or 13 treatments of admission, then stable patients are reviewed annually. Unstable patients (e.g., frequent hospitalizations, inadequate dialysis) must be reviewed monthly.
Why is CRRT preferred over intermittent hemodialysis for critically ill patients with acute kidney injury?
CRRT runs continuously at lower blood/fluid flow rates, allowing slow, gentle solute and fluid removal. This prevents the rapid hemodynamic shifts and hypotension associated with intermittent HD in unstable patients.
Frequently Asked Questions
What is the passing score for the CNN exam?
The passing standard is a scaled score of 95, which requires answering approximately 70% of the questions correctly. The NNCC uses scaled scores to ensure fairness across different test versions.
What are the eligibility requirements to take the CNN exam?
To take the CNN exam, you must hold a full and unrestricted RN license in the U.S. or its territories, have at least 2,500 hours of nephrology nursing experience within the 2 years before applying, and complete 30 contact hours of approved nephrology continuing education within that same 2-year period. NNCC's role-based update (effective Summer 2026) removed the previous baccalaureate (BSN) degree requirement.
What is the difference between CNN and CDN certification?
Both NNCC credentials are now role-based with no degree requirement. The CNN (Certified Nephrology Nurse) covers the full scope of nephrology nursing and requires 2,500 hours of nephrology experience across settings (home dialysis, acute kidney injury, critical care, CKD management, transplant) within 2 years. The CDN (Certified Dialysis Nurse) focuses on in-center hemodialysis and also requires 2,500 hours within 2 years caring for or supervising in-center hemodialysis patients.
What is the content breakdown of the CNN exam?
Under the current NNCC blueprint, the CNN exam content areas are: Concepts of Kidney Disease (approximately 38%), Hemodialysis (approximately 30%), Peritoneal Dialysis (approximately 22%), Transplant (approximately 5%), and Acute Therapies (approximately 5%). A revised blueprint takes effect September 1, 2026 (Concepts of Kidney Disease 30%, Acute Inpatient Therapies 25%, Peritoneal Dialysis 20%, Home Hemodialysis 15%, Transplant 10%).
How long is the CNN certification valid?
The CNN certification is valid for 3 years (effective from the last day of the month in which you passed). To recertify, you must hold a full, unrestricted RN license, have at least 1,500 hours of nephrology nursing experience during the 3-year cycle, and complete 45 contact hours of approved continuing education (at least 15 of them nephrology-specific) — or recertify by retaking the exam, which waives the continuing-education requirement.
Explore More NNCC Nephrology Nursing Certifications
Continue into nearby exams from the same family. Each card keeps practice questions, study guides, flashcards, videos, and articles in one place.
More From This Family
Videos and articles for deeper review.